Difficulty with understanding the semantics of the following equivalences











up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1












I know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the antecedent of a conditional are as follows:
(∀x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ) and (∃x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ), provided that x is not free in ψ.
I also know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the consequent are as follows:
φ → (∀x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∀x)(φ → ψ(x)) and φ → (∃x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∃x)(φ → ψ(x)), provided that x is not free in φ.



Now, I understand how to derive these equivalences syntactically. However, I can't seem to grasp how the first two can be semantically equivalent.

For example, how can two sentences such as "If all x are wet, then it's raining" and "There exists an x such that if x is wet, then it's raining" can be equivalent?

Moreover, provided that x is not free in ψ, isn't (∀x)φ(x) → ψ equivalent to (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ)? Which would result in the absurd equivalence: (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ) ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ).



I think that my difficulty here arises from a misunderstanding of the significance of the parentheses in the aforementioned equivalences. Please provide examples in your answer if you can.










share|improve this question




























    up vote
    7
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    I know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the antecedent of a conditional are as follows:
    (∀x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ) and (∃x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ), provided that x is not free in ψ.
    I also know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the consequent are as follows:
    φ → (∀x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∀x)(φ → ψ(x)) and φ → (∃x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∃x)(φ → ψ(x)), provided that x is not free in φ.



    Now, I understand how to derive these equivalences syntactically. However, I can't seem to grasp how the first two can be semantically equivalent.

    For example, how can two sentences such as "If all x are wet, then it's raining" and "There exists an x such that if x is wet, then it's raining" can be equivalent?

    Moreover, provided that x is not free in ψ, isn't (∀x)φ(x) → ψ equivalent to (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ)? Which would result in the absurd equivalence: (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ) ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ).



    I think that my difficulty here arises from a misunderstanding of the significance of the parentheses in the aforementioned equivalences. Please provide examples in your answer if you can.










    share|improve this question


























      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      7
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the antecedent of a conditional are as follows:
      (∀x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ) and (∃x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ), provided that x is not free in ψ.
      I also know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the consequent are as follows:
      φ → (∀x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∀x)(φ → ψ(x)) and φ → (∃x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∃x)(φ → ψ(x)), provided that x is not free in φ.



      Now, I understand how to derive these equivalences syntactically. However, I can't seem to grasp how the first two can be semantically equivalent.

      For example, how can two sentences such as "If all x are wet, then it's raining" and "There exists an x such that if x is wet, then it's raining" can be equivalent?

      Moreover, provided that x is not free in ψ, isn't (∀x)φ(x) → ψ equivalent to (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ)? Which would result in the absurd equivalence: (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ) ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ).



      I think that my difficulty here arises from a misunderstanding of the significance of the parentheses in the aforementioned equivalences. Please provide examples in your answer if you can.










      share|improve this question















      I know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the antecedent of a conditional are as follows:
      (∀x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ) and (∃x)φ(x) → ψ ⇔ (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ), provided that x is not free in ψ.
      I also know that the rules for removing quantifiers from the consequent are as follows:
      φ → (∀x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∀x)(φ → ψ(x)) and φ → (∃x)ψ(x) ⇔ (∃x)(φ → ψ(x)), provided that x is not free in φ.



      Now, I understand how to derive these equivalences syntactically. However, I can't seem to grasp how the first two can be semantically equivalent.

      For example, how can two sentences such as "If all x are wet, then it's raining" and "There exists an x such that if x is wet, then it's raining" can be equivalent?

      Moreover, provided that x is not free in ψ, isn't (∀x)φ(x) → ψ equivalent to (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ)? Which would result in the absurd equivalence: (∀x)(φ(x) → ψ) ⇔ (∃x)(φ(x) → ψ).



      I think that my difficulty here arises from a misunderstanding of the significance of the parentheses in the aforementioned equivalences. Please provide examples in your answer if you can.







      logic






      share|improve this question















      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question








      edited Nov 25 at 10:16

























      asked Nov 25 at 9:56









      Ofek Aman

      384




      384






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted











          how can two sentences such as "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" and "There exists an x such that (if x is wet, then it's raining)" can be equivalent?




          A simple approach to this equivalence, that holds only in classical logic, is to exploit the so-called Material implication rule :




          (P → Q) ≡ (¬ P ∨ Q).




          Thus, we have that : "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" is equivalent to : "Either (not all x are wet) or it's raining", i.e "Either (there exists an x which is not wet) or it's raining".



          Now we have to use the fact that the existential quantifier "distribute" over or and the fact that "it's is raining" is equivalent to "there is an x such that it's raining", due to the key-fact that x is not free in "it's raining".



          Thus, the last step is to move the existential quantifier in front of the formula to get :




          "There exists an x such that (either x is not wet or it's raining)."






          We can show the semantical equivalence of :




          (∀x βx → α) ↔ ∃x(βx → α)




          this way.



          Let M a structure whatever, with domain D.



          Two cases :



          (i) ∀x βx is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          This means that there is an a in D such that βa is False.



          Thus, (βa → α) is True, which means that (βx → α) is True for some x.



          And thus, also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (ii) ∀x βx is True.



          Two subcases :



          (iia) α is True. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          But if α is True, also (βx → α), irrespective of the value of x, and thus also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (iib) α is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is False.



          The fact that ∀x βx is True imples that βa is True, for every a in D.



          Thus (βa → α) is False, for every a in D, which means that ∃x(βx → α) is False.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:15










          • @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Nov 25 at 11:19












          • Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:23











          Your Answer








          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "265"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: false,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: null,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f57423%2fdifficulty-with-understanding-the-semantics-of-the-following-equivalences%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted











          how can two sentences such as "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" and "There exists an x such that (if x is wet, then it's raining)" can be equivalent?




          A simple approach to this equivalence, that holds only in classical logic, is to exploit the so-called Material implication rule :




          (P → Q) ≡ (¬ P ∨ Q).




          Thus, we have that : "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" is equivalent to : "Either (not all x are wet) or it's raining", i.e "Either (there exists an x which is not wet) or it's raining".



          Now we have to use the fact that the existential quantifier "distribute" over or and the fact that "it's is raining" is equivalent to "there is an x such that it's raining", due to the key-fact that x is not free in "it's raining".



          Thus, the last step is to move the existential quantifier in front of the formula to get :




          "There exists an x such that (either x is not wet or it's raining)."






          We can show the semantical equivalence of :




          (∀x βx → α) ↔ ∃x(βx → α)




          this way.



          Let M a structure whatever, with domain D.



          Two cases :



          (i) ∀x βx is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          This means that there is an a in D such that βa is False.



          Thus, (βa → α) is True, which means that (βx → α) is True for some x.



          And thus, also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (ii) ∀x βx is True.



          Two subcases :



          (iia) α is True. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          But if α is True, also (βx → α), irrespective of the value of x, and thus also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (iib) α is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is False.



          The fact that ∀x βx is True imples that βa is True, for every a in D.



          Thus (βa → α) is False, for every a in D, which means that ∃x(βx → α) is False.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:15










          • @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Nov 25 at 11:19












          • Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:23















          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted











          how can two sentences such as "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" and "There exists an x such that (if x is wet, then it's raining)" can be equivalent?




          A simple approach to this equivalence, that holds only in classical logic, is to exploit the so-called Material implication rule :




          (P → Q) ≡ (¬ P ∨ Q).




          Thus, we have that : "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" is equivalent to : "Either (not all x are wet) or it's raining", i.e "Either (there exists an x which is not wet) or it's raining".



          Now we have to use the fact that the existential quantifier "distribute" over or and the fact that "it's is raining" is equivalent to "there is an x such that it's raining", due to the key-fact that x is not free in "it's raining".



          Thus, the last step is to move the existential quantifier in front of the formula to get :




          "There exists an x such that (either x is not wet or it's raining)."






          We can show the semantical equivalence of :




          (∀x βx → α) ↔ ∃x(βx → α)




          this way.



          Let M a structure whatever, with domain D.



          Two cases :



          (i) ∀x βx is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          This means that there is an a in D such that βa is False.



          Thus, (βa → α) is True, which means that (βx → α) is True for some x.



          And thus, also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (ii) ∀x βx is True.



          Two subcases :



          (iia) α is True. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          But if α is True, also (βx → α), irrespective of the value of x, and thus also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (iib) α is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is False.



          The fact that ∀x βx is True imples that βa is True, for every a in D.



          Thus (βa → α) is False, for every a in D, which means that ∃x(βx → α) is False.






          share|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:15










          • @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Nov 25 at 11:19












          • Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:23













          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          7
          down vote



          accepted







          how can two sentences such as "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" and "There exists an x such that (if x is wet, then it's raining)" can be equivalent?




          A simple approach to this equivalence, that holds only in classical logic, is to exploit the so-called Material implication rule :




          (P → Q) ≡ (¬ P ∨ Q).




          Thus, we have that : "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" is equivalent to : "Either (not all x are wet) or it's raining", i.e "Either (there exists an x which is not wet) or it's raining".



          Now we have to use the fact that the existential quantifier "distribute" over or and the fact that "it's is raining" is equivalent to "there is an x such that it's raining", due to the key-fact that x is not free in "it's raining".



          Thus, the last step is to move the existential quantifier in front of the formula to get :




          "There exists an x such that (either x is not wet or it's raining)."






          We can show the semantical equivalence of :




          (∀x βx → α) ↔ ∃x(βx → α)




          this way.



          Let M a structure whatever, with domain D.



          Two cases :



          (i) ∀x βx is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          This means that there is an a in D such that βa is False.



          Thus, (βa → α) is True, which means that (βx → α) is True for some x.



          And thus, also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (ii) ∀x βx is True.



          Two subcases :



          (iia) α is True. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          But if α is True, also (βx → α), irrespective of the value of x, and thus also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (iib) α is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is False.



          The fact that ∀x βx is True imples that βa is True, for every a in D.



          Thus (βa → α) is False, for every a in D, which means that ∃x(βx → α) is False.






          share|improve this answer















          how can two sentences such as "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" and "There exists an x such that (if x is wet, then it's raining)" can be equivalent?




          A simple approach to this equivalence, that holds only in classical logic, is to exploit the so-called Material implication rule :




          (P → Q) ≡ (¬ P ∨ Q).




          Thus, we have that : "(If all x are wet, then it's raining)" is equivalent to : "Either (not all x are wet) or it's raining", i.e "Either (there exists an x which is not wet) or it's raining".



          Now we have to use the fact that the existential quantifier "distribute" over or and the fact that "it's is raining" is equivalent to "there is an x such that it's raining", due to the key-fact that x is not free in "it's raining".



          Thus, the last step is to move the existential quantifier in front of the formula to get :




          "There exists an x such that (either x is not wet or it's raining)."






          We can show the semantical equivalence of :




          (∀x βx → α) ↔ ∃x(βx → α)




          this way.



          Let M a structure whatever, with domain D.



          Two cases :



          (i) ∀x βx is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          This means that there is an a in D such that βa is False.



          Thus, (βa → α) is True, which means that (βx → α) is True for some x.



          And thus, also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (ii) ∀x βx is True.



          Two subcases :



          (iia) α is True. In this case (∀x βx → α) is True.



          But if α is True, also (βx → α), irrespective of the value of x, and thus also ∃x(βx → α) is True.



          (iib) α is False. In this case (∀x βx → α) is False.



          The fact that ∀x βx is True imples that βa is True, for every a in D.



          Thus (βa → α) is False, for every a in D, which means that ∃x(βx → α) is False.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Nov 25 at 11:18

























          answered Nov 25 at 10:11









          Mauro ALLEGRANZA

          27.1k21961




          27.1k21961








          • 1




            Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:15










          • @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Nov 25 at 11:19












          • Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:23














          • 1




            Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:15










          • @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Nov 25 at 11:19












          • Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
            – Ofek Aman
            Nov 25 at 11:23








          1




          1




          Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
          – Ofek Aman
          Nov 25 at 11:15




          Thank you for clarifying the problem. I understand how the universal conditional implies the existential so no problem here. However, I still don't get how the existential conditional also implies the universal.
          – Ofek Aman
          Nov 25 at 11:15












          @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
          – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
          Nov 25 at 11:19






          @OfekAman - not clear... the two are equivalent : when (∀x βx → α) is True, also ∃x(βx → α) is True. When (∀x βx → α) is False, also ∃x(βx → α) is False.
          – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
          Nov 25 at 11:19














          Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
          – Ofek Aman
          Nov 25 at 11:23




          Oh, I see it now. The two expressions always get yhe same truth value and therefore are equivalent. Thank you!
          – Ofek Aman
          Nov 25 at 11:23


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Philosophy Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





          Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


          Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f57423%2fdifficulty-with-understanding-the-semantics-of-the-following-equivalences%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          Plaza Victoria

          In PowerPoint, is there a keyboard shortcut for bulleted / numbered list?

          How to put 3 figures in Latex with 2 figures side by side and 1 below these side by side images but in...