Verification of a semialgebra
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The question concerns the verification that a set family is a semialgebra.
Definition. A non empty family $mathcal{S}subseteqmathcal{P}(X)$ is said semialgebra on $X$ if:
$1.$ For each $E, Finmathcal{S}$ we have $Ecap Finmathcal{S}$;
$2.$ For each $Einmathcal{S}$ exist $F_1,dots F_ninmathcal{S}$ disjoint such that $E^c=cup_{k=1}^n F_k$.
We consider the family $$mathcal{I_0}=underbrace{{(a,b];|;-inftyle ale b<+infty}}_{:=U}cupunderbrace{{(a_1,+infty);|;-infty<a_1<+infty}}_{:=V}.$$
The family $mathcal{I}_0$ is a semialgebra on $mathbb{R}$. We observe that if $a=b$, then $(a,b]=emptyset$, therefore $emptysetin mathcal{I_0}$ by definition. We suppose that $a<b$ and we prove $1$.
Case 1.[$E, Fin U$]
$(a_1,b_1]cap(a_2,b_2]=(sup{a_1,a_2}, min{b_1,b_2}]inmathcal{I_0}$.
Case 2.[$Ein U$ and $Fin V$]
$(a_1, b_1]cap(a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2}, b_1]in mathcal{I_0}$
Case 3.[$E,Fin V$]
$(a_1,+infty)cap (a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2},+infty)in mathcal{I_0}$.
Question. Could someone help me to prove the property $2.$?
Thanks!
measure-theory
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up vote
1
down vote
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The question concerns the verification that a set family is a semialgebra.
Definition. A non empty family $mathcal{S}subseteqmathcal{P}(X)$ is said semialgebra on $X$ if:
$1.$ For each $E, Finmathcal{S}$ we have $Ecap Finmathcal{S}$;
$2.$ For each $Einmathcal{S}$ exist $F_1,dots F_ninmathcal{S}$ disjoint such that $E^c=cup_{k=1}^n F_k$.
We consider the family $$mathcal{I_0}=underbrace{{(a,b];|;-inftyle ale b<+infty}}_{:=U}cupunderbrace{{(a_1,+infty);|;-infty<a_1<+infty}}_{:=V}.$$
The family $mathcal{I}_0$ is a semialgebra on $mathbb{R}$. We observe that if $a=b$, then $(a,b]=emptyset$, therefore $emptysetin mathcal{I_0}$ by definition. We suppose that $a<b$ and we prove $1$.
Case 1.[$E, Fin U$]
$(a_1,b_1]cap(a_2,b_2]=(sup{a_1,a_2}, min{b_1,b_2}]inmathcal{I_0}$.
Case 2.[$Ein U$ and $Fin V$]
$(a_1, b_1]cap(a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2}, b_1]in mathcal{I_0}$
Case 3.[$E,Fin V$]
$(a_1,+infty)cap (a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2},+infty)in mathcal{I_0}$.
Question. Could someone help me to prove the property $2.$?
Thanks!
measure-theory
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
The question concerns the verification that a set family is a semialgebra.
Definition. A non empty family $mathcal{S}subseteqmathcal{P}(X)$ is said semialgebra on $X$ if:
$1.$ For each $E, Finmathcal{S}$ we have $Ecap Finmathcal{S}$;
$2.$ For each $Einmathcal{S}$ exist $F_1,dots F_ninmathcal{S}$ disjoint such that $E^c=cup_{k=1}^n F_k$.
We consider the family $$mathcal{I_0}=underbrace{{(a,b];|;-inftyle ale b<+infty}}_{:=U}cupunderbrace{{(a_1,+infty);|;-infty<a_1<+infty}}_{:=V}.$$
The family $mathcal{I}_0$ is a semialgebra on $mathbb{R}$. We observe that if $a=b$, then $(a,b]=emptyset$, therefore $emptysetin mathcal{I_0}$ by definition. We suppose that $a<b$ and we prove $1$.
Case 1.[$E, Fin U$]
$(a_1,b_1]cap(a_2,b_2]=(sup{a_1,a_2}, min{b_1,b_2}]inmathcal{I_0}$.
Case 2.[$Ein U$ and $Fin V$]
$(a_1, b_1]cap(a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2}, b_1]in mathcal{I_0}$
Case 3.[$E,Fin V$]
$(a_1,+infty)cap (a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2},+infty)in mathcal{I_0}$.
Question. Could someone help me to prove the property $2.$?
Thanks!
measure-theory
The question concerns the verification that a set family is a semialgebra.
Definition. A non empty family $mathcal{S}subseteqmathcal{P}(X)$ is said semialgebra on $X$ if:
$1.$ For each $E, Finmathcal{S}$ we have $Ecap Finmathcal{S}$;
$2.$ For each $Einmathcal{S}$ exist $F_1,dots F_ninmathcal{S}$ disjoint such that $E^c=cup_{k=1}^n F_k$.
We consider the family $$mathcal{I_0}=underbrace{{(a,b];|;-inftyle ale b<+infty}}_{:=U}cupunderbrace{{(a_1,+infty);|;-infty<a_1<+infty}}_{:=V}.$$
The family $mathcal{I}_0$ is a semialgebra on $mathbb{R}$. We observe that if $a=b$, then $(a,b]=emptyset$, therefore $emptysetin mathcal{I_0}$ by definition. We suppose that $a<b$ and we prove $1$.
Case 1.[$E, Fin U$]
$(a_1,b_1]cap(a_2,b_2]=(sup{a_1,a_2}, min{b_1,b_2}]inmathcal{I_0}$.
Case 2.[$Ein U$ and $Fin V$]
$(a_1, b_1]cap(a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2}, b_1]in mathcal{I_0}$
Case 3.[$E,Fin V$]
$(a_1,+infty)cap (a_2,+infty)=(sup{a_1,a_2},+infty)in mathcal{I_0}$.
Question. Could someone help me to prove the property $2.$?
Thanks!
measure-theory
measure-theory
asked Nov 10 at 17:13
Jack J.
4531317
4531317
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2 Answers
2
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oldest
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up vote
1
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accepted
$newcommand{I}{mathcal{I}_0}$
Given $Ein I$, since $Ucap V=emptyset$, we have two cases.
Case 1.[$Ein U$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,b]\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}cup underbrace{(b,+infty)}_{F_2}
end{align}
Notice that if $a=-infty$, then $F_1=emptyset$. It's trivial that $F_1cap F_2=emptyset$ and
begin{align}
F_1&in UsubsetI\
F_2&in VsubsetI.
end{align}
Case 2.[$Ein V$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,+infty)\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}
end{align}
Of course, $F_1in UsubsetI$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
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From the context, I guess that $E^c$ means the complement of $E$ (not the closure). In that case, since the lower boundary may be $-infty$ for the sets in $U$, I think that writing out the complement as $(-infty, a] cup (b, infty)$ or $(-infty, a_1]$ (resp.) should give property 2 in a quite straight-forward manner.
(I wanted to give this as a comment, but I do not have sufficient reputation.)
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$newcommand{I}{mathcal{I}_0}$
Given $Ein I$, since $Ucap V=emptyset$, we have two cases.
Case 1.[$Ein U$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,b]\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}cup underbrace{(b,+infty)}_{F_2}
end{align}
Notice that if $a=-infty$, then $F_1=emptyset$. It's trivial that $F_1cap F_2=emptyset$ and
begin{align}
F_1&in UsubsetI\
F_2&in VsubsetI.
end{align}
Case 2.[$Ein V$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,+infty)\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}
end{align}
Of course, $F_1in UsubsetI$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$newcommand{I}{mathcal{I}_0}$
Given $Ein I$, since $Ucap V=emptyset$, we have two cases.
Case 1.[$Ein U$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,b]\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}cup underbrace{(b,+infty)}_{F_2}
end{align}
Notice that if $a=-infty$, then $F_1=emptyset$. It's trivial that $F_1cap F_2=emptyset$ and
begin{align}
F_1&in UsubsetI\
F_2&in VsubsetI.
end{align}
Case 2.[$Ein V$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,+infty)\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}
end{align}
Of course, $F_1in UsubsetI$.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$newcommand{I}{mathcal{I}_0}$
Given $Ein I$, since $Ucap V=emptyset$, we have two cases.
Case 1.[$Ein U$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,b]\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}cup underbrace{(b,+infty)}_{F_2}
end{align}
Notice that if $a=-infty$, then $F_1=emptyset$. It's trivial that $F_1cap F_2=emptyset$ and
begin{align}
F_1&in UsubsetI\
F_2&in VsubsetI.
end{align}
Case 2.[$Ein V$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,+infty)\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}
end{align}
Of course, $F_1in UsubsetI$.
$newcommand{I}{mathcal{I}_0}$
Given $Ein I$, since $Ucap V=emptyset$, we have two cases.
Case 1.[$Ein U$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,b]\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}cup underbrace{(b,+infty)}_{F_2}
end{align}
Notice that if $a=-infty$, then $F_1=emptyset$. It's trivial that $F_1cap F_2=emptyset$ and
begin{align}
F_1&in UsubsetI\
F_2&in VsubsetI.
end{align}
Case 2.[$Ein V$]
begin{align}
E&=(a,+infty)\
E^C&=underbrace{(-infty,a]}_{F_1}
end{align}
Of course, $F_1in UsubsetI$.
answered Nov 16 at 13:36
francescop21
1,012115
1,012115
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
From the context, I guess that $E^c$ means the complement of $E$ (not the closure). In that case, since the lower boundary may be $-infty$ for the sets in $U$, I think that writing out the complement as $(-infty, a] cup (b, infty)$ or $(-infty, a_1]$ (resp.) should give property 2 in a quite straight-forward manner.
(I wanted to give this as a comment, but I do not have sufficient reputation.)
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
From the context, I guess that $E^c$ means the complement of $E$ (not the closure). In that case, since the lower boundary may be $-infty$ for the sets in $U$, I think that writing out the complement as $(-infty, a] cup (b, infty)$ or $(-infty, a_1]$ (resp.) should give property 2 in a quite straight-forward manner.
(I wanted to give this as a comment, but I do not have sufficient reputation.)
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
From the context, I guess that $E^c$ means the complement of $E$ (not the closure). In that case, since the lower boundary may be $-infty$ for the sets in $U$, I think that writing out the complement as $(-infty, a] cup (b, infty)$ or $(-infty, a_1]$ (resp.) should give property 2 in a quite straight-forward manner.
(I wanted to give this as a comment, but I do not have sufficient reputation.)
From the context, I guess that $E^c$ means the complement of $E$ (not the closure). In that case, since the lower boundary may be $-infty$ for the sets in $U$, I think that writing out the complement as $(-infty, a] cup (b, infty)$ or $(-infty, a_1]$ (resp.) should give property 2 in a quite straight-forward manner.
(I wanted to give this as a comment, but I do not have sufficient reputation.)
answered Nov 12 at 18:43
Pepijn de Maat
366
366
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
add a comment |
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@Pepjin de Maat thanks for your answer. Yes, $E^c$ means the complement of $E$.
– Jack J.
Nov 12 at 19:04
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
@JackJ. In that case, note that $(-infty, a], (-infty, a_1) in U$ and $(b, infty) in V$ and that for $a leq b$, we have $(-infty, a]$ is disjoint with $(b, infty)$; hence property 2 has been satisfied. The main exceptions are boundary cases like $b = -infty$, which can be solved by $(-infty, 0] cup (0, infty)$ which is again a combination of a subset in $U$ and one in $V$.
– Pepijn de Maat
Nov 12 at 19:11
add a comment |
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