How to prove the non-existence of continuous solution for a functional equation?












0












$begingroup$


Let us consider the following functional equation
$$
f(f(x))=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
$$

How to prove that there is NO continuous function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ satisfies the equation above?



First I notice that
$$
F(x):=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
$$

has only one fixed point $0$. From this it follows that
$$
f(0)=0.
$$
Otherwise, if we assume that $a:=f(0)>0$, then $f(a)=F(0)=0$. It is easy to see that $f(x)$ has a fixed point in $(0,a)$ by intermediate value theorem. Similarly, we can rule out the case $f(0)<0$. Therefore we have $f(0)=0$



I want to show that $f$ has a nonzero fixed point $x^*$, from which we find a contradiction. This is my initial idea. But I don't how to find such non-zero fixed point.



If I find a closed interval $[a,b]$, which does not include 0, such that $f([a,b])subset [a,b]$. Then we know that $f$ has at least one fixed point in $[a,b]$ by intermediate value theorem.



Maybe, my idea is wrong. Are there some other approaches?



What follows is the plot of function $F$, which may give you some hints:
enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    Let us consider the following functional equation
    $$
    f(f(x))=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
    $$

    How to prove that there is NO continuous function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ satisfies the equation above?



    First I notice that
    $$
    F(x):=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
    $$

    has only one fixed point $0$. From this it follows that
    $$
    f(0)=0.
    $$
    Otherwise, if we assume that $a:=f(0)>0$, then $f(a)=F(0)=0$. It is easy to see that $f(x)$ has a fixed point in $(0,a)$ by intermediate value theorem. Similarly, we can rule out the case $f(0)<0$. Therefore we have $f(0)=0$



    I want to show that $f$ has a nonzero fixed point $x^*$, from which we find a contradiction. This is my initial idea. But I don't how to find such non-zero fixed point.



    If I find a closed interval $[a,b]$, which does not include 0, such that $f([a,b])subset [a,b]$. Then we know that $f$ has at least one fixed point in $[a,b]$ by intermediate value theorem.



    Maybe, my idea is wrong. Are there some other approaches?



    What follows is the plot of function $F$, which may give you some hints:
    enter image description here










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let us consider the following functional equation
      $$
      f(f(x))=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
      $$

      How to prove that there is NO continuous function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ satisfies the equation above?



      First I notice that
      $$
      F(x):=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
      $$

      has only one fixed point $0$. From this it follows that
      $$
      f(0)=0.
      $$
      Otherwise, if we assume that $a:=f(0)>0$, then $f(a)=F(0)=0$. It is easy to see that $f(x)$ has a fixed point in $(0,a)$ by intermediate value theorem. Similarly, we can rule out the case $f(0)<0$. Therefore we have $f(0)=0$



      I want to show that $f$ has a nonzero fixed point $x^*$, from which we find a contradiction. This is my initial idea. But I don't how to find such non-zero fixed point.



      If I find a closed interval $[a,b]$, which does not include 0, such that $f([a,b])subset [a,b]$. Then we know that $f$ has at least one fixed point in $[a,b]$ by intermediate value theorem.



      Maybe, my idea is wrong. Are there some other approaches?



      What follows is the plot of function $F$, which may give you some hints:
      enter image description here










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let us consider the following functional equation
      $$
      f(f(x))=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
      $$

      How to prove that there is NO continuous function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$ satisfies the equation above?



      First I notice that
      $$
      F(x):=-x^3+sin(x^2+ln(1+|x|))
      $$

      has only one fixed point $0$. From this it follows that
      $$
      f(0)=0.
      $$
      Otherwise, if we assume that $a:=f(0)>0$, then $f(a)=F(0)=0$. It is easy to see that $f(x)$ has a fixed point in $(0,a)$ by intermediate value theorem. Similarly, we can rule out the case $f(0)<0$. Therefore we have $f(0)=0$



      I want to show that $f$ has a nonzero fixed point $x^*$, from which we find a contradiction. This is my initial idea. But I don't how to find such non-zero fixed point.



      If I find a closed interval $[a,b]$, which does not include 0, such that $f([a,b])subset [a,b]$. Then we know that $f$ has at least one fixed point in $[a,b]$ by intermediate value theorem.



      Maybe, my idea is wrong. Are there some other approaches?



      What follows is the plot of function $F$, which may give you some hints:
      enter image description here







      calculus real-analysis






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      share|cite|improve this question













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      edited Dec 1 '18 at 16:37







      Yuhang

















      asked Dec 1 '18 at 16:12









      YuhangYuhang

      835118




      835118






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Another approach: look to large values. Let $g(x)$ be that expression on the right, and note that $lim_{xtoinfty} g(x)=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} g(x)=infty$. Also, there is some $M$ such that $g$ is strictly decreasing on both $(-infty,-M)$ and $(M,infty)$. Suppose there is a continuous $f$ with $fcirc f = g$. Then, since $g$ is injective on $(-infty,-M)$, $f$ is also injective on $(-infty,-M)$, hence monotone. Let $L=lim_{xtoinfty} f(x)$, in the extended real line. If $L$ is finite, then by continuity $f(L)=lim_{xtoinfty}f(f(x))=-infty$. That's impossible, so either $L=infty$ or $L=-infty$. If $L=infty$, then $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x)) =lim_{ytoinfty} f(y) = infty$, a contradiction. If $L=-infty$, then $-infty = lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=lim_{yto-infty} f(y)$, and we'll have the same problem on the other side ($lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=lim_{ytoinfty} f(y)=-infty$). Either way, we can't have both $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=infty$ on the same globally continuous $f$. There is no such function.






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            active

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            $begingroup$

            Another approach: look to large values. Let $g(x)$ be that expression on the right, and note that $lim_{xtoinfty} g(x)=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} g(x)=infty$. Also, there is some $M$ such that $g$ is strictly decreasing on both $(-infty,-M)$ and $(M,infty)$. Suppose there is a continuous $f$ with $fcirc f = g$. Then, since $g$ is injective on $(-infty,-M)$, $f$ is also injective on $(-infty,-M)$, hence monotone. Let $L=lim_{xtoinfty} f(x)$, in the extended real line. If $L$ is finite, then by continuity $f(L)=lim_{xtoinfty}f(f(x))=-infty$. That's impossible, so either $L=infty$ or $L=-infty$. If $L=infty$, then $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x)) =lim_{ytoinfty} f(y) = infty$, a contradiction. If $L=-infty$, then $-infty = lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=lim_{yto-infty} f(y)$, and we'll have the same problem on the other side ($lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=lim_{ytoinfty} f(y)=-infty$). Either way, we can't have both $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=infty$ on the same globally continuous $f$. There is no such function.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              2












              $begingroup$

              Another approach: look to large values. Let $g(x)$ be that expression on the right, and note that $lim_{xtoinfty} g(x)=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} g(x)=infty$. Also, there is some $M$ such that $g$ is strictly decreasing on both $(-infty,-M)$ and $(M,infty)$. Suppose there is a continuous $f$ with $fcirc f = g$. Then, since $g$ is injective on $(-infty,-M)$, $f$ is also injective on $(-infty,-M)$, hence monotone. Let $L=lim_{xtoinfty} f(x)$, in the extended real line. If $L$ is finite, then by continuity $f(L)=lim_{xtoinfty}f(f(x))=-infty$. That's impossible, so either $L=infty$ or $L=-infty$. If $L=infty$, then $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x)) =lim_{ytoinfty} f(y) = infty$, a contradiction. If $L=-infty$, then $-infty = lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=lim_{yto-infty} f(y)$, and we'll have the same problem on the other side ($lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=lim_{ytoinfty} f(y)=-infty$). Either way, we can't have both $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=infty$ on the same globally continuous $f$. There is no such function.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                2












                2








                2





                $begingroup$

                Another approach: look to large values. Let $g(x)$ be that expression on the right, and note that $lim_{xtoinfty} g(x)=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} g(x)=infty$. Also, there is some $M$ such that $g$ is strictly decreasing on both $(-infty,-M)$ and $(M,infty)$. Suppose there is a continuous $f$ with $fcirc f = g$. Then, since $g$ is injective on $(-infty,-M)$, $f$ is also injective on $(-infty,-M)$, hence monotone. Let $L=lim_{xtoinfty} f(x)$, in the extended real line. If $L$ is finite, then by continuity $f(L)=lim_{xtoinfty}f(f(x))=-infty$. That's impossible, so either $L=infty$ or $L=-infty$. If $L=infty$, then $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x)) =lim_{ytoinfty} f(y) = infty$, a contradiction. If $L=-infty$, then $-infty = lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=lim_{yto-infty} f(y)$, and we'll have the same problem on the other side ($lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=lim_{ytoinfty} f(y)=-infty$). Either way, we can't have both $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=infty$ on the same globally continuous $f$. There is no such function.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Another approach: look to large values. Let $g(x)$ be that expression on the right, and note that $lim_{xtoinfty} g(x)=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} g(x)=infty$. Also, there is some $M$ such that $g$ is strictly decreasing on both $(-infty,-M)$ and $(M,infty)$. Suppose there is a continuous $f$ with $fcirc f = g$. Then, since $g$ is injective on $(-infty,-M)$, $f$ is also injective on $(-infty,-M)$, hence monotone. Let $L=lim_{xtoinfty} f(x)$, in the extended real line. If $L$ is finite, then by continuity $f(L)=lim_{xtoinfty}f(f(x))=-infty$. That's impossible, so either $L=infty$ or $L=-infty$. If $L=infty$, then $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x)) =lim_{ytoinfty} f(y) = infty$, a contradiction. If $L=-infty$, then $-infty = lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=lim_{yto-infty} f(y)$, and we'll have the same problem on the other side ($lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=lim_{ytoinfty} f(y)=-infty$). Either way, we can't have both $lim_{xtoinfty} f(f(x))=-infty$ and $lim_{xto-infty} f(f(x))=infty$ on the same globally continuous $f$. There is no such function.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 1 '18 at 17:16









                jmerryjmerry

                4,454514




                4,454514






























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