Positive value of function and root
$begingroup$
Suppose $j,kinmathbb{N}$ and $1leqslant jleqslant k$.
The polynomial
$$
f(x)=x^{2k}-sum_{i=0}^{k-j-1}x^i
$$
has exactly one positive root $x_0$ by Descartes' rule.
Do we also have that
$$
f(x)>0implies x>x_0?
$$
real-analysis roots
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $j,kinmathbb{N}$ and $1leqslant jleqslant k$.
The polynomial
$$
f(x)=x^{2k}-sum_{i=0}^{k-j-1}x^i
$$
has exactly one positive root $x_0$ by Descartes' rule.
Do we also have that
$$
f(x)>0implies x>x_0?
$$
real-analysis roots
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $j,kinmathbb{N}$ and $1leqslant jleqslant k$.
The polynomial
$$
f(x)=x^{2k}-sum_{i=0}^{k-j-1}x^i
$$
has exactly one positive root $x_0$ by Descartes' rule.
Do we also have that
$$
f(x)>0implies x>x_0?
$$
real-analysis roots
$endgroup$
Suppose $j,kinmathbb{N}$ and $1leqslant jleqslant k$.
The polynomial
$$
f(x)=x^{2k}-sum_{i=0}^{k-j-1}x^i
$$
has exactly one positive root $x_0$ by Descartes' rule.
Do we also have that
$$
f(x)>0implies x>x_0?
$$
real-analysis roots
real-analysis roots
asked Dec 18 '18 at 10:10
SalamoSalamo
359412
359412
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
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oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $x_0$ is the only positive root of $f$, it is the largest one. Then, there is no sign change of $f$ on $(x_0, infty)$ and since $underset{xto + infty}{lim} f = + infty$. You may indeed assert that $ x > x_0 Rightarrow f(x) > 0 $.
However $ f(x) > 0 Rightarrow x > x_0 $ does not generally hold. Take $j=k=1$, then $f(x) = x^2$ and $f(-1)>0$ but $-1 < 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Since $x_0$ is the only positive root of $f$, it is the largest one. Then, there is no sign change of $f$ on $(x_0, infty)$ and since $underset{xto + infty}{lim} f = + infty$. You may indeed assert that $ x > x_0 Rightarrow f(x) > 0 $.
However $ f(x) > 0 Rightarrow x > x_0 $ does not generally hold. Take $j=k=1$, then $f(x) = x^2$ and $f(-1)>0$ but $-1 < 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $x_0$ is the only positive root of $f$, it is the largest one. Then, there is no sign change of $f$ on $(x_0, infty)$ and since $underset{xto + infty}{lim} f = + infty$. You may indeed assert that $ x > x_0 Rightarrow f(x) > 0 $.
However $ f(x) > 0 Rightarrow x > x_0 $ does not generally hold. Take $j=k=1$, then $f(x) = x^2$ and $f(-1)>0$ but $-1 < 0$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $x_0$ is the only positive root of $f$, it is the largest one. Then, there is no sign change of $f$ on $(x_0, infty)$ and since $underset{xto + infty}{lim} f = + infty$. You may indeed assert that $ x > x_0 Rightarrow f(x) > 0 $.
However $ f(x) > 0 Rightarrow x > x_0 $ does not generally hold. Take $j=k=1$, then $f(x) = x^2$ and $f(-1)>0$ but $-1 < 0$.
$endgroup$
Since $x_0$ is the only positive root of $f$, it is the largest one. Then, there is no sign change of $f$ on $(x_0, infty)$ and since $underset{xto + infty}{lim} f = + infty$. You may indeed assert that $ x > x_0 Rightarrow f(x) > 0 $.
However $ f(x) > 0 Rightarrow x > x_0 $ does not generally hold. Take $j=k=1$, then $f(x) = x^2$ and $f(-1)>0$ but $-1 < 0$.
answered Dec 18 '18 at 10:21
Bill O'HaranBill O'Haran
2,5431418
2,5431418
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
Thanks. But I guess that $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
That depends on the multiplicity of $x_0$. If it is odd then yes. Otherwise, for $xin (0,x_0)$, $f(x)>0$.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 10:54
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
$begingroup$
And here, $x_0$ is a simple root (hence odd), hence my statement holds, i.e. $f(x)>0$ and $xgeq 0$ indeed imply $x>x_0$.
$endgroup$
– Salamo
Dec 18 '18 at 13:13
1
1
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
$begingroup$
Sure. I forgot that Descartes' rule took multiplicity into account.
$endgroup$
– Bill O'Haran
Dec 18 '18 at 13:27
add a comment |
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