If a set is $F_sigma$ and is of first category then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets












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We say a set is $F_sigma$ if it is a countable union of closed sets. We say a set is of first category if it is a countable union of nowhere dense sets.



The question is, if a set of $F_sigma$ and of first category, is it true that this set is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    We say a set is $F_sigma$ if it is a countable union of closed sets. We say a set is of first category if it is a countable union of nowhere dense sets.



    The question is, if a set of $F_sigma$ and of first category, is it true that this set is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      We say a set is $F_sigma$ if it is a countable union of closed sets. We say a set is of first category if it is a countable union of nowhere dense sets.



      The question is, if a set of $F_sigma$ and of first category, is it true that this set is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      We say a set is $F_sigma$ if it is a countable union of closed sets. We say a set is of first category if it is a countable union of nowhere dense sets.



      The question is, if a set of $F_sigma$ and of first category, is it true that this set is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets.







      real-analysis functional-analysis analysis






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      asked Nov 30 '18 at 4:44









      bbwbbw

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          $begingroup$

          Yes, an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets.



          Since an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed sets of the first category, it will suffice to show that a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets. Well, a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many nowhere dense sets, and it is also the union of the closures of those nowhere dense sets, and the closure of a nowhere dense set is a closed nowhere dense set, Q.E.D.



          Actually, a closed set of the first category (in a Baire space) is nowhere dense; so there is a shorter proof, if you're working with a Baire space.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
            $endgroup$
            – bbw
            Nov 30 '18 at 5:53










          • $begingroup$
            Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Nov 30 '18 at 6:16











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Yes, an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets.



          Since an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed sets of the first category, it will suffice to show that a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets. Well, a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many nowhere dense sets, and it is also the union of the closures of those nowhere dense sets, and the closure of a nowhere dense set is a closed nowhere dense set, Q.E.D.



          Actually, a closed set of the first category (in a Baire space) is nowhere dense; so there is a shorter proof, if you're working with a Baire space.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
            $endgroup$
            – bbw
            Nov 30 '18 at 5:53










          • $begingroup$
            Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Nov 30 '18 at 6:16
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Yes, an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets.



          Since an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed sets of the first category, it will suffice to show that a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets. Well, a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many nowhere dense sets, and it is also the union of the closures of those nowhere dense sets, and the closure of a nowhere dense set is a closed nowhere dense set, Q.E.D.



          Actually, a closed set of the first category (in a Baire space) is nowhere dense; so there is a shorter proof, if you're working with a Baire space.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
            $endgroup$
            – bbw
            Nov 30 '18 at 5:53










          • $begingroup$
            Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Nov 30 '18 at 6:16














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Yes, an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets.



          Since an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed sets of the first category, it will suffice to show that a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets. Well, a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many nowhere dense sets, and it is also the union of the closures of those nowhere dense sets, and the closure of a nowhere dense set is a closed nowhere dense set, Q.E.D.



          Actually, a closed set of the first category (in a Baire space) is nowhere dense; so there is a shorter proof, if you're working with a Baire space.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Yes, an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets.



          Since an $F_sigma$ set of the first category is the union of countably many closed sets of the first category, it will suffice to show that a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many closed nowhere dense sets. Well, a closed set of the first category is the union of countably many nowhere dense sets, and it is also the union of the closures of those nowhere dense sets, and the closure of a nowhere dense set is a closed nowhere dense set, Q.E.D.



          Actually, a closed set of the first category (in a Baire space) is nowhere dense; so there is a shorter proof, if you're working with a Baire space.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 30 '18 at 4:57









          bofbof

          51k457120




          51k457120












          • $begingroup$
            If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
            $endgroup$
            – bbw
            Nov 30 '18 at 5:53










          • $begingroup$
            Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Nov 30 '18 at 6:16


















          • $begingroup$
            If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
            $endgroup$
            – bbw
            Nov 30 '18 at 5:53










          • $begingroup$
            Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – bof
            Nov 30 '18 at 6:16
















          $begingroup$
          If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
          $endgroup$
          – bbw
          Nov 30 '18 at 5:53




          $begingroup$
          If a set $A$ is $F_sigma$ and is of first category, then it is a countable union of closed nowhere dense sets. In this case, is $A$ closed? The closure of an infinite union may not be equal to the infinite union of closures right?
          $endgroup$
          – bbw
          Nov 30 '18 at 5:53












          $begingroup$
          Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – bof
          Nov 30 '18 at 6:16




          $begingroup$
          Right, an $F_sigma$ set of first category is not necessarily closed. Any countable subset of $mathbb R$ is an $F_sigma$ set of first category, but a countable set of real numbers is not necessarily closed, for example, the set $mathbb Q$ of all rational numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – bof
          Nov 30 '18 at 6:16


















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