Sylow subgroups and simple groups [closed]












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I recently began learning the Sylow Theorems. However, I don't understand why if you have a finite group $G$ with $|G|> 1$, and if $G$ has a unique Sylow p-subgroup, then $G$ cannot be simple.



Thanks










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closed as off-topic by Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 3 '18 at 3:41


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















  • $begingroup$
    Do you know what simple means?
    $endgroup$
    – Fakemistake
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46










  • $begingroup$
    If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46
















0












$begingroup$


I recently began learning the Sylow Theorems. However, I don't understand why if you have a finite group $G$ with $|G|> 1$, and if $G$ has a unique Sylow p-subgroup, then $G$ cannot be simple.



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$



closed as off-topic by Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 3 '18 at 3:41


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.
















  • $begingroup$
    Do you know what simple means?
    $endgroup$
    – Fakemistake
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46










  • $begingroup$
    If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I recently began learning the Sylow Theorems. However, I don't understand why if you have a finite group $G$ with $|G|> 1$, and if $G$ has a unique Sylow p-subgroup, then $G$ cannot be simple.



Thanks










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I recently began learning the Sylow Theorems. However, I don't understand why if you have a finite group $G$ with $|G|> 1$, and if $G$ has a unique Sylow p-subgroup, then $G$ cannot be simple.



Thanks







abstract-algebra






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asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:43









jclayjclay

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closed as off-topic by Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 3 '18 at 3:41


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







closed as off-topic by Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen Dec 3 '18 at 3:41


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Morgan Rodgers, Shailesh, Saad, KReiser, Jyrki Lahtonen

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.












  • $begingroup$
    Do you know what simple means?
    $endgroup$
    – Fakemistake
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46










  • $begingroup$
    If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46


















  • $begingroup$
    Do you know what simple means?
    $endgroup$
    – Fakemistake
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46










  • $begingroup$
    If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
    $endgroup$
    – Morgan Rodgers
    Dec 2 '18 at 21:46
















$begingroup$
Do you know what simple means?
$endgroup$
– Fakemistake
Dec 2 '18 at 21:46




$begingroup$
Do you know what simple means?
$endgroup$
– Fakemistake
Dec 2 '18 at 21:46












$begingroup$
If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
$endgroup$
– Morgan Rodgers
Dec 2 '18 at 21:46




$begingroup$
If you have a unique Sylow $p$-subgroup then the $p$-subgroup is normal. So if this $p$-subgroup is proper, then $G$ won't be simple.
$endgroup$
– Morgan Rodgers
Dec 2 '18 at 21:46










2 Answers
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By the Sylow theorems, all Sylow-$p$-subgroups of $G$ are conjugate. If there is only one Sylow-$p$-subgroup, then it is normal because it is equal to all its conjugates. So if $G$ has a unique Sylow-$p$-subgroup then it has a normal subgroup, hence it is not simple unless the Sylow-$p$-subgroup is all of $G$.



So your statement is not true; the simplest counterexample is the group of $2$ elements, and in general any group $G$ with $|G|$ a prime power.






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    0












    $begingroup$

    Kind of a hint: Sylow's $3$rd theorem says that $n_p = [G : N_G(P)]$ where $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ and $n_p$ is the number of such subgroups. What does it mean that $n_p = 1$?






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1












      $begingroup$

      By the Sylow theorems, all Sylow-$p$-subgroups of $G$ are conjugate. If there is only one Sylow-$p$-subgroup, then it is normal because it is equal to all its conjugates. So if $G$ has a unique Sylow-$p$-subgroup then it has a normal subgroup, hence it is not simple unless the Sylow-$p$-subgroup is all of $G$.



      So your statement is not true; the simplest counterexample is the group of $2$ elements, and in general any group $G$ with $|G|$ a prime power.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        By the Sylow theorems, all Sylow-$p$-subgroups of $G$ are conjugate. If there is only one Sylow-$p$-subgroup, then it is normal because it is equal to all its conjugates. So if $G$ has a unique Sylow-$p$-subgroup then it has a normal subgroup, hence it is not simple unless the Sylow-$p$-subgroup is all of $G$.



        So your statement is not true; the simplest counterexample is the group of $2$ elements, and in general any group $G$ with $|G|$ a prime power.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          By the Sylow theorems, all Sylow-$p$-subgroups of $G$ are conjugate. If there is only one Sylow-$p$-subgroup, then it is normal because it is equal to all its conjugates. So if $G$ has a unique Sylow-$p$-subgroup then it has a normal subgroup, hence it is not simple unless the Sylow-$p$-subgroup is all of $G$.



          So your statement is not true; the simplest counterexample is the group of $2$ elements, and in general any group $G$ with $|G|$ a prime power.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          By the Sylow theorems, all Sylow-$p$-subgroups of $G$ are conjugate. If there is only one Sylow-$p$-subgroup, then it is normal because it is equal to all its conjugates. So if $G$ has a unique Sylow-$p$-subgroup then it has a normal subgroup, hence it is not simple unless the Sylow-$p$-subgroup is all of $G$.



          So your statement is not true; the simplest counterexample is the group of $2$ elements, and in general any group $G$ with $|G|$ a prime power.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 2 '18 at 21:46









          ServaesServaes

          23.3k33893




          23.3k33893























              0












              $begingroup$

              Kind of a hint: Sylow's $3$rd theorem says that $n_p = [G : N_G(P)]$ where $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ and $n_p$ is the number of such subgroups. What does it mean that $n_p = 1$?






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Kind of a hint: Sylow's $3$rd theorem says that $n_p = [G : N_G(P)]$ where $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ and $n_p$ is the number of such subgroups. What does it mean that $n_p = 1$?






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Kind of a hint: Sylow's $3$rd theorem says that $n_p = [G : N_G(P)]$ where $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ and $n_p$ is the number of such subgroups. What does it mean that $n_p = 1$?






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Kind of a hint: Sylow's $3$rd theorem says that $n_p = [G : N_G(P)]$ where $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$ and $n_p$ is the number of such subgroups. What does it mean that $n_p = 1$?







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 2 '18 at 21:47









                  ÍgjøgnumMegÍgjøgnumMeg

                  2,83511029




                  2,83511029















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