bijective function from a circle to a line












-1












$begingroup$


I am just reading a book which says the square has the same size as the line. It is saying every coordinate in the square have two coordinates x and y, and we can make a bijective function this in a line if we transform the coordinates as $ z = .x_1 y_1 x_2 y_2dots $. Ex: $ x=1/2$ and $ y=1/3 $ $to z= 0.530303030dots$

Read this, I thought actually we could use this to map circle also (actually for any shape) Every point on the circe line is map like this for just one point on the line. Also they cardinality stay same. Is this correct?



If yes what happens if one of the coordinates is negative? Lat says one of the point on the circle x=2 and y = -3, So if how we organise these numbers after each other. $ 0.2(-3)00 $ Obviously it is not looking right.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:01












  • $begingroup$
    I mean the just the edge.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 15 at 8:52
















-1












$begingroup$


I am just reading a book which says the square has the same size as the line. It is saying every coordinate in the square have two coordinates x and y, and we can make a bijective function this in a line if we transform the coordinates as $ z = .x_1 y_1 x_2 y_2dots $. Ex: $ x=1/2$ and $ y=1/3 $ $to z= 0.530303030dots$

Read this, I thought actually we could use this to map circle also (actually for any shape) Every point on the circe line is map like this for just one point on the line. Also they cardinality stay same. Is this correct?



If yes what happens if one of the coordinates is negative? Lat says one of the point on the circle x=2 and y = -3, So if how we organise these numbers after each other. $ 0.2(-3)00 $ Obviously it is not looking right.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:01












  • $begingroup$
    I mean the just the edge.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 15 at 8:52














-1












-1








-1


0



$begingroup$


I am just reading a book which says the square has the same size as the line. It is saying every coordinate in the square have two coordinates x and y, and we can make a bijective function this in a line if we transform the coordinates as $ z = .x_1 y_1 x_2 y_2dots $. Ex: $ x=1/2$ and $ y=1/3 $ $to z= 0.530303030dots$

Read this, I thought actually we could use this to map circle also (actually for any shape) Every point on the circe line is map like this for just one point on the line. Also they cardinality stay same. Is this correct?



If yes what happens if one of the coordinates is negative? Lat says one of the point on the circle x=2 and y = -3, So if how we organise these numbers after each other. $ 0.2(-3)00 $ Obviously it is not looking right.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I am just reading a book which says the square has the same size as the line. It is saying every coordinate in the square have two coordinates x and y, and we can make a bijective function this in a line if we transform the coordinates as $ z = .x_1 y_1 x_2 y_2dots $. Ex: $ x=1/2$ and $ y=1/3 $ $to z= 0.530303030dots$

Read this, I thought actually we could use this to map circle also (actually for any shape) Every point on the circe line is map like this for just one point on the line. Also they cardinality stay same. Is this correct?



If yes what happens if one of the coordinates is negative? Lat says one of the point on the circle x=2 and y = -3, So if how we organise these numbers after each other. $ 0.2(-3)00 $ Obviously it is not looking right.







geometry






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 12 '18 at 13:50









arkheinarkhein

95




95








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:01












  • $begingroup$
    I mean the just the edge.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 15 at 8:52














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:01












  • $begingroup$
    I mean the just the edge.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Jan 15 at 8:52








1




1




$begingroup$
When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 12 '18 at 14:01






$begingroup$
When you say "circle", do you mean just the edge of the circle, or the whole, filled-in disc? Not that it really matters for the final answer, but it may affect the details of any example people give you.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 12 '18 at 14:01














$begingroup$
I mean the just the edge.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:33




$begingroup$
I mean the just the edge.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:33












$begingroup$
You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 15 at 8:52




$begingroup$
You recieved 2 answers to your question. Is any of them what you needed? If so, you should upvote all the useful answers and accept the answer that is most useful to you.
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Jan 15 at 8:52










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

No. That map is specifically constructed to work for points in the square $[0, 1]times[0, 1]$. Any other shape (including a square at a different place in the plane, but also circles, or more exotic things) would require some alteration to the function description.



It is definitely possible, but it's not as pretty to describe exactly how the map works. You can't just interleave the digits and call it a day.



Besides, you have to be a bit careful with the whole $0.999ldots = 1$ issue. For instance,
$$
z = 0.5303030ldots
$$

corresponds to $x = frac12, y = frac13$, but so does
$$
z = 0.4393939ldots
$$

so it's not really a bijection as stated.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:31



















2












$begingroup$

Yes, there exists a bijective function between any circle and any interval of $mathbb R$.



For example, for the basic circle $x^2+y^2=1$ and the interval $[0,1)$ you can construct bijective the mapping



$$t mapsto (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t))$$



For any other circle and any other half-open interval, you can first map the circle to the unit circle, and the interval to the unit interval, and use the same function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    I mean circe not disk.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:27










  • $begingroup$
    thanks the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:32











Your Answer





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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

No. That map is specifically constructed to work for points in the square $[0, 1]times[0, 1]$. Any other shape (including a square at a different place in the plane, but also circles, or more exotic things) would require some alteration to the function description.



It is definitely possible, but it's not as pretty to describe exactly how the map works. You can't just interleave the digits and call it a day.



Besides, you have to be a bit careful with the whole $0.999ldots = 1$ issue. For instance,
$$
z = 0.5303030ldots
$$

corresponds to $x = frac12, y = frac13$, but so does
$$
z = 0.4393939ldots
$$

so it's not really a bijection as stated.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:31
















2












$begingroup$

No. That map is specifically constructed to work for points in the square $[0, 1]times[0, 1]$. Any other shape (including a square at a different place in the plane, but also circles, or more exotic things) would require some alteration to the function description.



It is definitely possible, but it's not as pretty to describe exactly how the map works. You can't just interleave the digits and call it a day.



Besides, you have to be a bit careful with the whole $0.999ldots = 1$ issue. For instance,
$$
z = 0.5303030ldots
$$

corresponds to $x = frac12, y = frac13$, but so does
$$
z = 0.4393939ldots
$$

so it's not really a bijection as stated.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:31














2












2








2





$begingroup$

No. That map is specifically constructed to work for points in the square $[0, 1]times[0, 1]$. Any other shape (including a square at a different place in the plane, but also circles, or more exotic things) would require some alteration to the function description.



It is definitely possible, but it's not as pretty to describe exactly how the map works. You can't just interleave the digits and call it a day.



Besides, you have to be a bit careful with the whole $0.999ldots = 1$ issue. For instance,
$$
z = 0.5303030ldots
$$

corresponds to $x = frac12, y = frac13$, but so does
$$
z = 0.4393939ldots
$$

so it's not really a bijection as stated.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



No. That map is specifically constructed to work for points in the square $[0, 1]times[0, 1]$. Any other shape (including a square at a different place in the plane, but also circles, or more exotic things) would require some alteration to the function description.



It is definitely possible, but it's not as pretty to describe exactly how the map works. You can't just interleave the digits and call it a day.



Besides, you have to be a bit careful with the whole $0.999ldots = 1$ issue. For instance,
$$
z = 0.5303030ldots
$$

corresponds to $x = frac12, y = frac13$, but so does
$$
z = 0.4393939ldots
$$

so it's not really a bijection as stated.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 12 '18 at 13:54









ArthurArthur

116k7116199




116k7116199












  • $begingroup$
    Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:31


















  • $begingroup$
    Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:31
















$begingroup$
Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:31




$begingroup$
Is there any name for "That map"? Actually, the book does not mention, so it is limiting me to read about more. I guess "That map" somehow handle the 0.999 = 1 problem, but in my text there is no mention it. So actually the map is working or not?
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:31











2












$begingroup$

Yes, there exists a bijective function between any circle and any interval of $mathbb R$.



For example, for the basic circle $x^2+y^2=1$ and the interval $[0,1)$ you can construct bijective the mapping



$$t mapsto (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t))$$



For any other circle and any other half-open interval, you can first map the circle to the unit circle, and the interval to the unit interval, and use the same function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    I mean circe not disk.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:27










  • $begingroup$
    thanks the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:32
















2












$begingroup$

Yes, there exists a bijective function between any circle and any interval of $mathbb R$.



For example, for the basic circle $x^2+y^2=1$ and the interval $[0,1)$ you can construct bijective the mapping



$$t mapsto (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t))$$



For any other circle and any other half-open interval, you can first map the circle to the unit circle, and the interval to the unit interval, and use the same function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    I mean circe not disk.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:27










  • $begingroup$
    thanks the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:32














2












2








2





$begingroup$

Yes, there exists a bijective function between any circle and any interval of $mathbb R$.



For example, for the basic circle $x^2+y^2=1$ and the interval $[0,1)$ you can construct bijective the mapping



$$t mapsto (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t))$$



For any other circle and any other half-open interval, you can first map the circle to the unit circle, and the interval to the unit interval, and use the same function.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Yes, there exists a bijective function between any circle and any interval of $mathbb R$.



For example, for the basic circle $x^2+y^2=1$ and the interval $[0,1)$ you can construct bijective the mapping



$$t mapsto (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t))$$



For any other circle and any other half-open interval, you can first map the circle to the unit circle, and the interval to the unit interval, and use the same function.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 12 '18 at 13:56









5xum5xum

91.1k394161




91.1k394161












  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    I mean circe not disk.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:27










  • $begingroup$
    thanks the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:32


















  • $begingroup$
    I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
    $endgroup$
    – Arthur
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:00










  • $begingroup$
    @Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
    $endgroup$
    – 5xum
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    I mean circe not disk.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:27










  • $begingroup$
    thanks the answer.
    $endgroup$
    – arkhein
    Dec 12 '18 at 14:32
















$begingroup$
I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 12 '18 at 14:00




$begingroup$
I suspect that by "circle", the OP really means "disc". Not sure, though.
$endgroup$
– Arthur
Dec 12 '18 at 14:00












$begingroup$
@Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 12 '18 at 14:03




$begingroup$
@Arthur Hmm. Possibly. In that case, of course, the answer is a little more complicated. Still a "yes", but more complicatedly so :)
$endgroup$
– 5xum
Dec 12 '18 at 14:03












$begingroup$
I mean circe not disk.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:27




$begingroup$
I mean circe not disk.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:27












$begingroup$
thanks the answer.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:32




$begingroup$
thanks the answer.
$endgroup$
– arkhein
Dec 12 '18 at 14:32


















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