Let $f:Xrightarrow Bbb{R},cup,{+infty}$ be a map. Then, for $x_0in X,;f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin...












0














Let $f:Xrightarrow Bbb{R},cup,{+infty}$ be a map where $X$ is a real normed space. Then, for an arbitrary $x_0in X,$ I want to prove that the following always holds:



begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



MY TRIAL



Let $x_0in X,$ then $exists,Vin,U(x_0)$ such that $f(x_0)geq f(x),;forall;xin V$, where $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$. So,



begin{align}f(x_0)geq inflimits_{xin V}f(x),;;text{for some};;Vin U(x_0),
end{align}

which implies that begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



Kindly check if I am correct or wrong. If it happens that I'm wrong, kindly give an alternative proof. Thanks










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 13:32










  • @David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:34










  • @Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 24 at 13:35










  • @Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:36
















0














Let $f:Xrightarrow Bbb{R},cup,{+infty}$ be a map where $X$ is a real normed space. Then, for an arbitrary $x_0in X,$ I want to prove that the following always holds:



begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



MY TRIAL



Let $x_0in X,$ then $exists,Vin,U(x_0)$ such that $f(x_0)geq f(x),;forall;xin V$, where $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$. So,



begin{align}f(x_0)geq inflimits_{xin V}f(x),;;text{for some};;Vin U(x_0),
end{align}

which implies that begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



Kindly check if I am correct or wrong. If it happens that I'm wrong, kindly give an alternative proof. Thanks










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 13:32










  • @David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:34










  • @Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 24 at 13:35










  • @Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:36














0












0








0


1





Let $f:Xrightarrow Bbb{R},cup,{+infty}$ be a map where $X$ is a real normed space. Then, for an arbitrary $x_0in X,$ I want to prove that the following always holds:



begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



MY TRIAL



Let $x_0in X,$ then $exists,Vin,U(x_0)$ such that $f(x_0)geq f(x),;forall;xin V$, where $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$. So,



begin{align}f(x_0)geq inflimits_{xin V}f(x),;;text{for some};;Vin U(x_0),
end{align}

which implies that begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



Kindly check if I am correct or wrong. If it happens that I'm wrong, kindly give an alternative proof. Thanks










share|cite|improve this question















Let $f:Xrightarrow Bbb{R},cup,{+infty}$ be a map where $X$ is a real normed space. Then, for an arbitrary $x_0in X,$ I want to prove that the following always holds:



begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



MY TRIAL



Let $x_0in X,$ then $exists,Vin,U(x_0)$ such that $f(x_0)geq f(x),;forall;xin V$, where $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$. So,



begin{align}f(x_0)geq inflimits_{xin V}f(x),;;text{for some};;Vin U(x_0),
end{align}

which implies that begin{align}f(x_0)geq suplimits_{Vin U(x_0)}inflimits_{xin V}f(x)
end{align}



Kindly check if I am correct or wrong. If it happens that I'm wrong, kindly give an alternative proof. Thanks







functional-analysis functions supremum-and-infimum






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 24 at 13:41

























asked Nov 24 at 13:28









Mike

1,194218




1,194218












  • You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 13:32










  • @David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:34










  • @Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 24 at 13:35










  • @Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:36


















  • You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
    – David C. Ullrich
    Nov 24 at 13:32










  • @David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:34










  • @Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 24 at 13:35










  • @Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
    – Mike
    Nov 24 at 13:36
















You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
– David C. Ullrich
Nov 24 at 13:32




You need to give us a hint - what is $U(x_0)$?
– David C. Ullrich
Nov 24 at 13:32












@David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
– Mike
Nov 24 at 13:34




@David C. Ullrich: Sorry! $U(x_0)$ is the set of all neighbourhoods of $x_0$
– Mike
Nov 24 at 13:34












@Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 24 at 13:35




@Mike Oh, so $X$ is a topological space? But why should that matter when $f$ is not necessarily continuos?
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 24 at 13:35












@Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
– Mike
Nov 24 at 13:36




@Hagen von Eitzen: Yes! Infact, $X$ is a real normed space.
– Mike
Nov 24 at 13:36










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2














There is not the slightest reason why $Vin U(x_0)$ with $f(x_0)ge f(x),forall xin V$ should exist.



However, if $Vin U(x_0)$ then $x_0in V$ (here, I make a wild guess that $U(x_0)$ denotes some non-empty subset of the power set of $X$ and each of its elements contains $x_0$) and hence $inf_{xin V} f(x)le f(x_0)$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















    Your Answer





    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    });
    });
    }, "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function() {
    var channelOptions = {
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    };
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
    createEditor();
    });
    }
    else {
    createEditor();
    }
    });

    function createEditor() {
    StackExchange.prepareEditor({
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: true,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    imageUploader: {
    brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
    contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
    allowUrls: true
    },
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    });


    }
    });














    draft saved

    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function () {
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3011556%2flet-fx-rightarrow-bbbr-cup-infty-be-a-map-then-for-x-0-in-x%23new-answer', 'question_page');
    }
    );

    Post as a guest















    Required, but never shown

























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2














    There is not the slightest reason why $Vin U(x_0)$ with $f(x_0)ge f(x),forall xin V$ should exist.



    However, if $Vin U(x_0)$ then $x_0in V$ (here, I make a wild guess that $U(x_0)$ denotes some non-empty subset of the power set of $X$ and each of its elements contains $x_0$) and hence $inf_{xin V} f(x)le f(x_0)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      2














      There is not the slightest reason why $Vin U(x_0)$ with $f(x_0)ge f(x),forall xin V$ should exist.



      However, if $Vin U(x_0)$ then $x_0in V$ (here, I make a wild guess that $U(x_0)$ denotes some non-empty subset of the power set of $X$ and each of its elements contains $x_0$) and hence $inf_{xin V} f(x)le f(x_0)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        2












        2








        2






        There is not the slightest reason why $Vin U(x_0)$ with $f(x_0)ge f(x),forall xin V$ should exist.



        However, if $Vin U(x_0)$ then $x_0in V$ (here, I make a wild guess that $U(x_0)$ denotes some non-empty subset of the power set of $X$ and each of its elements contains $x_0$) and hence $inf_{xin V} f(x)le f(x_0)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        There is not the slightest reason why $Vin U(x_0)$ with $f(x_0)ge f(x),forall xin V$ should exist.



        However, if $Vin U(x_0)$ then $x_0in V$ (here, I make a wild guess that $U(x_0)$ denotes some non-empty subset of the power set of $X$ and each of its elements contains $x_0$) and hence $inf_{xin V} f(x)le f(x_0)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 24 at 13:32









        Hagen von Eitzen

        276k21268495




        276k21268495






























            draft saved

            draft discarded




















































            Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





            Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


            Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


            • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

            But avoid



            • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

            • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


            To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function () {
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3011556%2flet-fx-rightarrow-bbbr-cup-infty-be-a-map-then-for-x-0-in-x%23new-answer', 'question_page');
            }
            );

            Post as a guest















            Required, but never shown





















































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown

































            Required, but never shown














            Required, but never shown












            Required, but never shown







            Required, but never shown







            Popular posts from this blog

            Plaza Victoria

            In PowerPoint, is there a keyboard shortcut for bulleted / numbered list?

            How to put 3 figures in Latex with 2 figures side by side and 1 below these side by side images but in...