I cannot understand why the range of integral of $x, y$ are from $0$ to $1$ when $x > 0 $ and $y < 1$.












1












$begingroup$


First of all, I am not native speak so sorry for my poor English.



I am studying the text book named "the probability and statistics for engineering and scientists" by myself.



But I am not good at this subject.



So I need help from experts.(Please help me)




Q) Let X and Y be random variables with joint density function.



$$ f(x, y) = 4xy (0<x, y<1) $$



Find the expected value of $$ Z = {sqrt{(X^2 + Y^2)}} $$.




The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.



Please explain that above..










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:30












  • $begingroup$
    thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:32












  • $begingroup$
    You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user113988
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:33












  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim Your English is excellent!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 18 '18 at 6:22










  • $begingroup$
    After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 21 '18 at 1:12
















1












$begingroup$


First of all, I am not native speak so sorry for my poor English.



I am studying the text book named "the probability and statistics for engineering and scientists" by myself.



But I am not good at this subject.



So I need help from experts.(Please help me)




Q) Let X and Y be random variables with joint density function.



$$ f(x, y) = 4xy (0<x, y<1) $$



Find the expected value of $$ Z = {sqrt{(X^2 + Y^2)}} $$.




The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.



Please explain that above..










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    ...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:30












  • $begingroup$
    thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:32












  • $begingroup$
    You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user113988
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:33












  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim Your English is excellent!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 18 '18 at 6:22










  • $begingroup$
    After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 21 '18 at 1:12














1












1








1





$begingroup$


First of all, I am not native speak so sorry for my poor English.



I am studying the text book named "the probability and statistics for engineering and scientists" by myself.



But I am not good at this subject.



So I need help from experts.(Please help me)




Q) Let X and Y be random variables with joint density function.



$$ f(x, y) = 4xy (0<x, y<1) $$



Find the expected value of $$ Z = {sqrt{(X^2 + Y^2)}} $$.




The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.



Please explain that above..










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




First of all, I am not native speak so sorry for my poor English.



I am studying the text book named "the probability and statistics for engineering and scientists" by myself.



But I am not good at this subject.



So I need help from experts.(Please help me)




Q) Let X and Y be random variables with joint density function.



$$ f(x, y) = 4xy (0<x, y<1) $$



Find the expected value of $$ Z = {sqrt{(X^2 + Y^2)}} $$.




The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.



Please explain that above..







probability expected-value






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 18 '18 at 1:32









usermath

2,5601227




2,5601227










asked Dec 18 '18 at 1:26









ty.kimty.kim

62




62












  • $begingroup$
    ...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:30












  • $begingroup$
    thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:32












  • $begingroup$
    You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user113988
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:33












  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim Your English is excellent!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 18 '18 at 6:22










  • $begingroup$
    After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 21 '18 at 1:12


















  • $begingroup$
    ...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
    $endgroup$
    – David G. Stork
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:30












  • $begingroup$
    thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:32












  • $begingroup$
    You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
    $endgroup$
    – user113988
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:33












  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim Your English is excellent!
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Dec 18 '18 at 6:22










  • $begingroup$
    After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 21 '18 at 1:12
















$begingroup$
...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Dec 18 '18 at 1:30






$begingroup$
...because $f(x,y)$ is defined $0 < x<1$ and $0<y<1)$.
$endgroup$
– David G. Stork
Dec 18 '18 at 1:30














$begingroup$
thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 1:32






$begingroup$
thank you for your answer. does that means x and y are same domain(or axis)
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 1:32














$begingroup$
You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user113988
Dec 18 '18 at 1:33






$begingroup$
You may want to start from $f(x,y) = 4xy, 0 < x,y < alpha$ where $alpha$ is some positive real number. Then if $intint f(x,y)dxdy = 1$ (as we must have for a probability density) then we must set $alpha = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user113988
Dec 18 '18 at 1:33














$begingroup$
@ty.kim Your English is excellent!
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 18 '18 at 6:22




$begingroup$
@ty.kim Your English is excellent!
$endgroup$
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Dec 18 '18 at 6:22












$begingroup$
After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 21 '18 at 1:12




$begingroup$
After you ask a question here, if you get an acceptable answer, you should "accept" the answer by clicking the check mark $checkmark$ next to it. This scores points for you and for the person who answered your question. You can find out more about accepting answers here: How do I accept an answer?, Why should we accept answers?, What should I do if someone answers my question?.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 21 '18 at 1:12










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

The integrals are "technically" not on $(0,1)times(0,1)$ only, but on $mathbb{R}^2$: you do have
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy f(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$

as... expected. However, by definition, $f(x,y)$ is non-zero only if $(x,y)in (0,1)times(0,1)$, so we end up having
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy 4xy mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
= int_{(0,1)times(0,1)} dxdy 4xy sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$



This is because $mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y)$ is by definition zero when $(x,y)in(0,1)times(0,1)$, and $1$ otherwise (it is the indicator function of $(0,1)times(0,1)$).






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:49










  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:52



















1












$begingroup$

Sometimes people write “$0<x,y<1$” to mean “$0<x<1$ and $0<y<1$”,
similar to how one might write “$x,y in (0,1)$” as an abbreviation for “$x in (0,1)$ and $y in (0,1)$”. And I think this is what's meant here. But this notation is a bit dangerous, since it can be interpreted (as you seem to have done) as “$0<x$ and $y<1$”, so I would recommend avoiding it.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    @ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Dec 18 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    That's fair. ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 19:35










  • $begingroup$
    @HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 23:27











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2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

The integrals are "technically" not on $(0,1)times(0,1)$ only, but on $mathbb{R}^2$: you do have
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy f(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$

as... expected. However, by definition, $f(x,y)$ is non-zero only if $(x,y)in (0,1)times(0,1)$, so we end up having
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy 4xy mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
= int_{(0,1)times(0,1)} dxdy 4xy sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$



This is because $mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y)$ is by definition zero when $(x,y)in(0,1)times(0,1)$, and $1$ otherwise (it is the indicator function of $(0,1)times(0,1)$).






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:49










  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:52
















1












$begingroup$

The integrals are "technically" not on $(0,1)times(0,1)$ only, but on $mathbb{R}^2$: you do have
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy f(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$

as... expected. However, by definition, $f(x,y)$ is non-zero only if $(x,y)in (0,1)times(0,1)$, so we end up having
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy 4xy mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
= int_{(0,1)times(0,1)} dxdy 4xy sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$



This is because $mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y)$ is by definition zero when $(x,y)in(0,1)times(0,1)$, and $1$ otherwise (it is the indicator function of $(0,1)times(0,1)$).






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:49










  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:52














1












1








1





$begingroup$

The integrals are "technically" not on $(0,1)times(0,1)$ only, but on $mathbb{R}^2$: you do have
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy f(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$

as... expected. However, by definition, $f(x,y)$ is non-zero only if $(x,y)in (0,1)times(0,1)$, so we end up having
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy 4xy mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
= int_{(0,1)times(0,1)} dxdy 4xy sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$



This is because $mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y)$ is by definition zero when $(x,y)in(0,1)times(0,1)$, and $1$ otherwise (it is the indicator function of $(0,1)times(0,1)$).






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



The integrals are "technically" not on $(0,1)times(0,1)$ only, but on $mathbb{R}^2$: you do have
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy f(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$

as... expected. However, by definition, $f(x,y)$ is non-zero only if $(x,y)in (0,1)times(0,1)$, so we end up having
$$
mathbb{E}[Z] = int_{mathbb{R}^2} dxdy 4xy mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y) sqrt{x^2+y^2}
= int_{(0,1)times(0,1)} dxdy 4xy sqrt{x^2+y^2}
$$



This is because $mathbf{1}_{(0,1)times(0,1)}(x,y)$ is by definition zero when $(x,y)in(0,1)times(0,1)$, and $1$ otherwise (it is the indicator function of $(0,1)times(0,1)$).







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 18 '18 at 1:32









Clement C.Clement C.

50.9k33992




50.9k33992












  • $begingroup$
    thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:49










  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:52


















  • $begingroup$
    thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:49










  • $begingroup$
    @ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 1:52
















$begingroup$
thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 1:49




$begingroup$
thank you.. I will try to understand this question based on your answer
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 1:49












$begingroup$
@ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 1:52




$begingroup$
@ty.kim You're welcome. If you have any doubt or further question, let me know.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 1:52











1












$begingroup$

Sometimes people write “$0<x,y<1$” to mean “$0<x<1$ and $0<y<1$”,
similar to how one might write “$x,y in (0,1)$” as an abbreviation for “$x in (0,1)$ and $y in (0,1)$”. And I think this is what's meant here. But this notation is a bit dangerous, since it can be interpreted (as you seem to have done) as “$0<x$ and $y<1$”, so I would recommend avoiding it.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    @ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Dec 18 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    That's fair. ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 19:35










  • $begingroup$
    @HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 23:27
















1












$begingroup$

Sometimes people write “$0<x,y<1$” to mean “$0<x<1$ and $0<y<1$”,
similar to how one might write “$x,y in (0,1)$” as an abbreviation for “$x in (0,1)$ and $y in (0,1)$”. And I think this is what's meant here. But this notation is a bit dangerous, since it can be interpreted (as you seem to have done) as “$0<x$ and $y<1$”, so I would recommend avoiding it.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    "as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    @ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Dec 18 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    That's fair. ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 19:35










  • $begingroup$
    @HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 23:27














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Sometimes people write “$0<x,y<1$” to mean “$0<x<1$ and $0<y<1$”,
similar to how one might write “$x,y in (0,1)$” as an abbreviation for “$x in (0,1)$ and $y in (0,1)$”. And I think this is what's meant here. But this notation is a bit dangerous, since it can be interpreted (as you seem to have done) as “$0<x$ and $y<1$”, so I would recommend avoiding it.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Sometimes people write “$0<x,y<1$” to mean “$0<x<1$ and $0<y<1$”,
similar to how one might write “$x,y in (0,1)$” as an abbreviation for “$x in (0,1)$ and $y in (0,1)$”. And I think this is what's meant here. But this notation is a bit dangerous, since it can be interpreted (as you seem to have done) as “$0<x$ and $y<1$”, so I would recommend avoiding it.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 18 '18 at 7:00









Hans LundmarkHans Lundmark

35.9k564115




35.9k564115












  • $begingroup$
    "as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    @ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Dec 18 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    That's fair. ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 19:35










  • $begingroup$
    @HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 23:27


















  • $begingroup$
    "as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    @ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Lundmark
    Dec 18 '18 at 18:38












  • $begingroup$
    That's fair. ${}{}$
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 18 '18 at 19:35










  • $begingroup$
    @HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
    $endgroup$
    – ty.kim
    Dec 18 '18 at 23:27
















$begingroup$
"as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33




$begingroup$
"as you seem to have done" Based on the last sentence, "The problem is that I cannot understand why the range of integral of x, y are from 0 to 1.", that does not look like what happened.
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33












$begingroup$
@ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
$endgroup$
– Hans Lundmark
Dec 18 '18 at 18:38






$begingroup$
@ClementC.: My conclusion is based on the phrasing “when $x>0$ and $y<1$” in the title of the question. And I'm thinking that with this misinterpretation, it would indeed be hard to understand why the book integrates both $x$ and $y$ from 0 to 1 when computing the expected value.
$endgroup$
– Hans Lundmark
Dec 18 '18 at 18:38














$begingroup$
That's fair. ${}{}$
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 19:35




$begingroup$
That's fair. ${}{}$
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 18 '18 at 19:35












$begingroup$
@HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 23:27




$begingroup$
@HansLundmark Thanks a lot!
$endgroup$
– ty.kim
Dec 18 '18 at 23:27


















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