Evaluating $int_0^2(tan^{-1}(pi x)-tan^{-1} x),mathrm{d}x$
$begingroup$
Hint given: Write the integrand as an integral.
I'm supposed to do this as double integration.
My attempt:
$$int_0^2 [tan^{-1}y]^{pi x}_{x}$$
$$= int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} int_{frac{y}{pi}}^2 frac { mathrm{d}x mathrm{d}y} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { [x]^2_{frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { 2- {frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
Carrying out this integration, I got, $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]$$
But I'm supposed to get $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]+ [frac {pi-1}{2 pi}] ln 5$$
Can someone please explain where I'm wrong? I've failed to pinpoint my mistake. Thank you.
integration
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint given: Write the integrand as an integral.
I'm supposed to do this as double integration.
My attempt:
$$int_0^2 [tan^{-1}y]^{pi x}_{x}$$
$$= int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} int_{frac{y}{pi}}^2 frac { mathrm{d}x mathrm{d}y} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { [x]^2_{frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { 2- {frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
Carrying out this integration, I got, $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]$$
But I'm supposed to get $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]+ [frac {pi-1}{2 pi}] ln 5$$
Can someone please explain where I'm wrong? I've failed to pinpoint my mistake. Thank you.
integration
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
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but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
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I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hint given: Write the integrand as an integral.
I'm supposed to do this as double integration.
My attempt:
$$int_0^2 [tan^{-1}y]^{pi x}_{x}$$
$$= int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} int_{frac{y}{pi}}^2 frac { mathrm{d}x mathrm{d}y} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { [x]^2_{frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { 2- {frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
Carrying out this integration, I got, $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]$$
But I'm supposed to get $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]+ [frac {pi-1}{2 pi}] ln 5$$
Can someone please explain where I'm wrong? I've failed to pinpoint my mistake. Thank you.
integration
$endgroup$
Hint given: Write the integrand as an integral.
I'm supposed to do this as double integration.
My attempt:
$$int_0^2 [tan^{-1}y]^{pi x}_{x}$$
$$= int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} int_{frac{y}{pi}}^2 frac { mathrm{d}x mathrm{d}y} {y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { [x]^2_{frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
$$= int_2^{2pi} frac { 2- {frac{y}{pi}} mathrm{d}y } { y^2+1}$$
Carrying out this integration, I got, $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]$$
But I'm supposed to get $$2[tan^{-1} 2 pi - tan^{-1} 2] - frac {1}{2 pi} [ln frac {1+4 {pi}^2} {5}]+ [frac {pi-1}{2 pi}] ln 5$$
Can someone please explain where I'm wrong? I've failed to pinpoint my mistake. Thank you.
integration
integration
edited Dec 25 '18 at 5:26
Saad
21k92453
21k92453
asked Nov 4 '14 at 6:00
DiyaDiya
1,29121027
1,29121027
2
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
$begingroup$
but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
$begingroup$
I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
$begingroup$
but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
$begingroup$
I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57
2
2
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
$begingroup$
but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
$begingroup$
but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
$begingroup$
I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57
$begingroup$
I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Use the change of variables $y = xt.$
$$I = int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y , mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}\=int_0^2 int_1^{pi } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}t , mathrm{d}x\=int_1^{pi} int_0^{2 } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}x , mathrm{d}t\=int_1^{pi} frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t^2} mathrm{d}t$$
Now use integration by parts.
$$I = -left.frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t}right|_1^{pi}+4int_1^{pi}frac1{1+4t^2} , dt$$
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$begingroup$
A more straight forward approach uses integration by parts.
Define:
begin{align}
& I(c)=int_{a}^{b}dx(1 times arctan{c x})=int_{ac}^{bc}frac{dy}{c} (1 timesarctan{ y})=\&frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}int_{ac}^{bc}frac{y}{1+y^2}
end{align}
using partial fraction this reads:
begin{align}
I(c)=frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}log(1+y^2)|_{ac}^{bc}
end{align}
taking $I(pi)-I(0)$ with $a=0$ and $b=2$ we are done
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the sake of an alternative approach, recall the formula for the integral of an inverse function
$$int f^{-1}(x)mathrm{d}x=xf^{-1}(x)-Fcirc f^{-1}(x)$$
Where $F'(x)=f(x)$. Plugging in $f(x)=tan(x)$,
$$I=intarctan(x)mathrm{d}x=xarctan(x)-int_0^{arctan(x)}tan(t)mathrm{d}t$$
Then recall that $$(-log|cos(x)|)'=tan(x)$$
So we have
$$I=xarctan(x)+log|cos(arctan(x))|$$
then using trig,
$$I=xarctan(x)-frac12log(x^2+1)$$
So
$$I_1=int_0^2arctan(x)mathrm{d}x=2arctan2-frac12log5$$
And
$$
begin{align}
I_2=&int_0^2arctan(pi x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1piint_0^{2pi}arctan(x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1pibigg(2piarctan2pi-frac12log(4pi^2+1)bigg)\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)\
end{align}
$$
So
$$
begin{align}
int_0^2(arctanpi x-arctan x)mathrm{d}x=&I_2-I_1\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2}logsqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2(arctan2pi-arctan2)+frac12logfrac{5}{sqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}}\
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
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$begingroup$
Use the change of variables $y = xt.$
$$I = int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y , mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}\=int_0^2 int_1^{pi } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}t , mathrm{d}x\=int_1^{pi} int_0^{2 } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}x , mathrm{d}t\=int_1^{pi} frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t^2} mathrm{d}t$$
Now use integration by parts.
$$I = -left.frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t}right|_1^{pi}+4int_1^{pi}frac1{1+4t^2} , dt$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the change of variables $y = xt.$
$$I = int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y , mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}\=int_0^2 int_1^{pi } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}t , mathrm{d}x\=int_1^{pi} int_0^{2 } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}x , mathrm{d}t\=int_1^{pi} frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t^2} mathrm{d}t$$
Now use integration by parts.
$$I = -left.frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t}right|_1^{pi}+4int_1^{pi}frac1{1+4t^2} , dt$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Use the change of variables $y = xt.$
$$I = int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y , mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}\=int_0^2 int_1^{pi } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}t , mathrm{d}x\=int_1^{pi} int_0^{2 } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}x , mathrm{d}t\=int_1^{pi} frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t^2} mathrm{d}t$$
Now use integration by parts.
$$I = -left.frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t}right|_1^{pi}+4int_1^{pi}frac1{1+4t^2} , dt$$
$endgroup$
Use the change of variables $y = xt.$
$$I = int_0^2 int_x^{pi x} frac { mathrm{d}y , mathrm{d}x} {y^2+1}\=int_0^2 int_1^{pi } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}t , mathrm{d}x\=int_1^{pi} int_0^{2 } frac { x} {x^2t^2+1}mathrm{d}x , mathrm{d}t\=int_1^{pi} frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t^2} mathrm{d}t$$
Now use integration by parts.
$$I = -left.frac{ln(1+4t^2)}{2t}right|_1^{pi}+4int_1^{pi}frac1{1+4t^2} , dt$$
edited Nov 4 '14 at 6:48
answered Nov 4 '14 at 6:30
RRLRRL
54k52675
54k52675
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A more straight forward approach uses integration by parts.
Define:
begin{align}
& I(c)=int_{a}^{b}dx(1 times arctan{c x})=int_{ac}^{bc}frac{dy}{c} (1 timesarctan{ y})=\&frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}int_{ac}^{bc}frac{y}{1+y^2}
end{align}
using partial fraction this reads:
begin{align}
I(c)=frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}log(1+y^2)|_{ac}^{bc}
end{align}
taking $I(pi)-I(0)$ with $a=0$ and $b=2$ we are done
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A more straight forward approach uses integration by parts.
Define:
begin{align}
& I(c)=int_{a}^{b}dx(1 times arctan{c x})=int_{ac}^{bc}frac{dy}{c} (1 timesarctan{ y})=\&frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}int_{ac}^{bc}frac{y}{1+y^2}
end{align}
using partial fraction this reads:
begin{align}
I(c)=frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}log(1+y^2)|_{ac}^{bc}
end{align}
taking $I(pi)-I(0)$ with $a=0$ and $b=2$ we are done
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
A more straight forward approach uses integration by parts.
Define:
begin{align}
& I(c)=int_{a}^{b}dx(1 times arctan{c x})=int_{ac}^{bc}frac{dy}{c} (1 timesarctan{ y})=\&frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}int_{ac}^{bc}frac{y}{1+y^2}
end{align}
using partial fraction this reads:
begin{align}
I(c)=frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}log(1+y^2)|_{ac}^{bc}
end{align}
taking $I(pi)-I(0)$ with $a=0$ and $b=2$ we are done
$endgroup$
A more straight forward approach uses integration by parts.
Define:
begin{align}
& I(c)=int_{a}^{b}dx(1 times arctan{c x})=int_{ac}^{bc}frac{dy}{c} (1 timesarctan{ y})=\&frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}int_{ac}^{bc}frac{y}{1+y^2}
end{align}
using partial fraction this reads:
begin{align}
I(c)=frac{1}{c}y arctan(y)|_{ac}^{bc}-frac{1}{2c}log(1+y^2)|_{ac}^{bc}
end{align}
taking $I(pi)-I(0)$ with $a=0$ and $b=2$ we are done
edited Nov 4 '14 at 17:59
answered Nov 4 '14 at 17:20
tiredtired
10.7k12045
10.7k12045
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the sake of an alternative approach, recall the formula for the integral of an inverse function
$$int f^{-1}(x)mathrm{d}x=xf^{-1}(x)-Fcirc f^{-1}(x)$$
Where $F'(x)=f(x)$. Plugging in $f(x)=tan(x)$,
$$I=intarctan(x)mathrm{d}x=xarctan(x)-int_0^{arctan(x)}tan(t)mathrm{d}t$$
Then recall that $$(-log|cos(x)|)'=tan(x)$$
So we have
$$I=xarctan(x)+log|cos(arctan(x))|$$
then using trig,
$$I=xarctan(x)-frac12log(x^2+1)$$
So
$$I_1=int_0^2arctan(x)mathrm{d}x=2arctan2-frac12log5$$
And
$$
begin{align}
I_2=&int_0^2arctan(pi x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1piint_0^{2pi}arctan(x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1pibigg(2piarctan2pi-frac12log(4pi^2+1)bigg)\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)\
end{align}
$$
So
$$
begin{align}
int_0^2(arctanpi x-arctan x)mathrm{d}x=&I_2-I_1\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2}logsqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2(arctan2pi-arctan2)+frac12logfrac{5}{sqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}}\
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the sake of an alternative approach, recall the formula for the integral of an inverse function
$$int f^{-1}(x)mathrm{d}x=xf^{-1}(x)-Fcirc f^{-1}(x)$$
Where $F'(x)=f(x)$. Plugging in $f(x)=tan(x)$,
$$I=intarctan(x)mathrm{d}x=xarctan(x)-int_0^{arctan(x)}tan(t)mathrm{d}t$$
Then recall that $$(-log|cos(x)|)'=tan(x)$$
So we have
$$I=xarctan(x)+log|cos(arctan(x))|$$
then using trig,
$$I=xarctan(x)-frac12log(x^2+1)$$
So
$$I_1=int_0^2arctan(x)mathrm{d}x=2arctan2-frac12log5$$
And
$$
begin{align}
I_2=&int_0^2arctan(pi x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1piint_0^{2pi}arctan(x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1pibigg(2piarctan2pi-frac12log(4pi^2+1)bigg)\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)\
end{align}
$$
So
$$
begin{align}
int_0^2(arctanpi x-arctan x)mathrm{d}x=&I_2-I_1\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2}logsqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2(arctan2pi-arctan2)+frac12logfrac{5}{sqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}}\
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For the sake of an alternative approach, recall the formula for the integral of an inverse function
$$int f^{-1}(x)mathrm{d}x=xf^{-1}(x)-Fcirc f^{-1}(x)$$
Where $F'(x)=f(x)$. Plugging in $f(x)=tan(x)$,
$$I=intarctan(x)mathrm{d}x=xarctan(x)-int_0^{arctan(x)}tan(t)mathrm{d}t$$
Then recall that $$(-log|cos(x)|)'=tan(x)$$
So we have
$$I=xarctan(x)+log|cos(arctan(x))|$$
then using trig,
$$I=xarctan(x)-frac12log(x^2+1)$$
So
$$I_1=int_0^2arctan(x)mathrm{d}x=2arctan2-frac12log5$$
And
$$
begin{align}
I_2=&int_0^2arctan(pi x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1piint_0^{2pi}arctan(x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1pibigg(2piarctan2pi-frac12log(4pi^2+1)bigg)\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)\
end{align}
$$
So
$$
begin{align}
int_0^2(arctanpi x-arctan x)mathrm{d}x=&I_2-I_1\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2}logsqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2(arctan2pi-arctan2)+frac12logfrac{5}{sqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}}\
end{align}
$$
$endgroup$
For the sake of an alternative approach, recall the formula for the integral of an inverse function
$$int f^{-1}(x)mathrm{d}x=xf^{-1}(x)-Fcirc f^{-1}(x)$$
Where $F'(x)=f(x)$. Plugging in $f(x)=tan(x)$,
$$I=intarctan(x)mathrm{d}x=xarctan(x)-int_0^{arctan(x)}tan(t)mathrm{d}t$$
Then recall that $$(-log|cos(x)|)'=tan(x)$$
So we have
$$I=xarctan(x)+log|cos(arctan(x))|$$
then using trig,
$$I=xarctan(x)-frac12log(x^2+1)$$
So
$$I_1=int_0^2arctan(x)mathrm{d}x=2arctan2-frac12log5$$
And
$$
begin{align}
I_2=&int_0^2arctan(pi x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1piint_0^{2pi}arctan(x)mathrm{d}x\
=&frac1pibigg(2piarctan2pi-frac12log(4pi^2+1)bigg)\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)\
end{align}
$$
So
$$
begin{align}
int_0^2(arctanpi x-arctan x)mathrm{d}x=&I_2-I_1\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2pi}log(4pi^2+1)-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2arctan2pi-frac1{2}logsqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}-2arctan2+frac12log5\
=&2(arctan2pi-arctan2)+frac12logfrac{5}{sqrt[pi]{4pi^2+1}}\
end{align}
$$
answered Dec 26 '18 at 0:02
clathratusclathratus
5,3091440
5,3091440
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2
$begingroup$
At third line it seems to me the integral must be $$int_0^{2pi}int_{frac{y}{pi}}^{y}frac{operatorname d!x operatorname d!y}{y^2+1}$$
$endgroup$
– Ángel Mario Gallegos
Nov 4 '14 at 6:13
$begingroup$
but that is taking my answer even further away from what I require.
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:50
$begingroup$
I got it! You were right! The integral is divided into two regions. One is the one I used, and the other is the one you mentioned. Thank you so much! :)
$endgroup$
– Diya
Nov 4 '14 at 6:57