If a matrix A is both triangular and unitary, then it is diagonal












4












$begingroup$


I have a proof I was hoping someone could review. Thanks in advance!



Let A be a matrix that is both triangular and unitary.
Then the columns of A are of length 1 and are orthogonal to each other.
Assume A is upper triangular, in this case.
Then set a$_n$ = column $n$ in A.



Clearly, since A is upper triangular and the columns are of length 1, then $ a$_1$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
pm 1 \
0 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



Now column $a_2$ has a similar composition with $a_1$. That is, on the diagonal of the entire matrix A, its second component here, $y_2$, has the value $pm$ 1 and zeros in all other components. This is due to first only two options exists for non-zero entries in the columns since A is upper triangular. Second since $a_1$*$a_2$ = 0 by orthogonality we have:



$$
1*y_1 + 0*y_2 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0 = 0
$$



Where $a_2$ is made up of components $y_1$, $y_2$ , ... $y_n$. So clearly $y_1$ must be zero, and for i > 2 we know $y_i$ = 0, by the upper triangular property



$ a$_2$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
0 \
pm 1 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



The remainder of the proof uses induction after examining these first two cases as the base case.



Let the following claim hold for $a_n$, we wish to prove that $a_(n+1)$ is a zero vector except in its n+1 component (where $pm$ 1 resides). Then given the $a_(n+1)$ column we note that by the orthogonality with all the previous n columns we can show that 0 must be the value of the first n components in $a_(n+1)$.



for any ith component in the column for i < n+1 we have:



$a_1$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 1st component must be zero (similarly to above)



$a_2$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 2nd component must be zero (similarly to above)
and so on ... until we conclude that each component up to the n+1 component must be equal to zero by orthogonality.



Hence only the $n+1$ component in the column $a_(n+1)$ can be equal to $pm$ 1 since all other inner products with the previous n columns indicate the remaining components must be zero (and any components below are zero due to A being upper triangular).



Hence for the upper triangular case, the matrix A must be diagonal.



I believe the lower triangular case to be a similar proof, but have not delved into it yet.



Thanks!










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$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    pm gives $pm$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 6:26










  • $begingroup$
    Your proof looks okay to me
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 12:00
















4












$begingroup$


I have a proof I was hoping someone could review. Thanks in advance!



Let A be a matrix that is both triangular and unitary.
Then the columns of A are of length 1 and are orthogonal to each other.
Assume A is upper triangular, in this case.
Then set a$_n$ = column $n$ in A.



Clearly, since A is upper triangular and the columns are of length 1, then $ a$_1$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
pm 1 \
0 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



Now column $a_2$ has a similar composition with $a_1$. That is, on the diagonal of the entire matrix A, its second component here, $y_2$, has the value $pm$ 1 and zeros in all other components. This is due to first only two options exists for non-zero entries in the columns since A is upper triangular. Second since $a_1$*$a_2$ = 0 by orthogonality we have:



$$
1*y_1 + 0*y_2 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0 = 0
$$



Where $a_2$ is made up of components $y_1$, $y_2$ , ... $y_n$. So clearly $y_1$ must be zero, and for i > 2 we know $y_i$ = 0, by the upper triangular property



$ a$_2$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
0 \
pm 1 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



The remainder of the proof uses induction after examining these first two cases as the base case.



Let the following claim hold for $a_n$, we wish to prove that $a_(n+1)$ is a zero vector except in its n+1 component (where $pm$ 1 resides). Then given the $a_(n+1)$ column we note that by the orthogonality with all the previous n columns we can show that 0 must be the value of the first n components in $a_(n+1)$.



for any ith component in the column for i < n+1 we have:



$a_1$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 1st component must be zero (similarly to above)



$a_2$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 2nd component must be zero (similarly to above)
and so on ... until we conclude that each component up to the n+1 component must be equal to zero by orthogonality.



Hence only the $n+1$ component in the column $a_(n+1)$ can be equal to $pm$ 1 since all other inner products with the previous n columns indicate the remaining components must be zero (and any components below are zero due to A being upper triangular).



Hence for the upper triangular case, the matrix A must be diagonal.



I believe the lower triangular case to be a similar proof, but have not delved into it yet.



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    pm gives $pm$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 6:26










  • $begingroup$
    Your proof looks okay to me
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 12:00














4












4








4


1



$begingroup$


I have a proof I was hoping someone could review. Thanks in advance!



Let A be a matrix that is both triangular and unitary.
Then the columns of A are of length 1 and are orthogonal to each other.
Assume A is upper triangular, in this case.
Then set a$_n$ = column $n$ in A.



Clearly, since A is upper triangular and the columns are of length 1, then $ a$_1$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
pm 1 \
0 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



Now column $a_2$ has a similar composition with $a_1$. That is, on the diagonal of the entire matrix A, its second component here, $y_2$, has the value $pm$ 1 and zeros in all other components. This is due to first only two options exists for non-zero entries in the columns since A is upper triangular. Second since $a_1$*$a_2$ = 0 by orthogonality we have:



$$
1*y_1 + 0*y_2 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0 = 0
$$



Where $a_2$ is made up of components $y_1$, $y_2$ , ... $y_n$. So clearly $y_1$ must be zero, and for i > 2 we know $y_i$ = 0, by the upper triangular property



$ a$_2$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
0 \
pm 1 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



The remainder of the proof uses induction after examining these first two cases as the base case.



Let the following claim hold for $a_n$, we wish to prove that $a_(n+1)$ is a zero vector except in its n+1 component (where $pm$ 1 resides). Then given the $a_(n+1)$ column we note that by the orthogonality with all the previous n columns we can show that 0 must be the value of the first n components in $a_(n+1)$.



for any ith component in the column for i < n+1 we have:



$a_1$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 1st component must be zero (similarly to above)



$a_2$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 2nd component must be zero (similarly to above)
and so on ... until we conclude that each component up to the n+1 component must be equal to zero by orthogonality.



Hence only the $n+1$ component in the column $a_(n+1)$ can be equal to $pm$ 1 since all other inner products with the previous n columns indicate the remaining components must be zero (and any components below are zero due to A being upper triangular).



Hence for the upper triangular case, the matrix A must be diagonal.



I believe the lower triangular case to be a similar proof, but have not delved into it yet.



Thanks!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have a proof I was hoping someone could review. Thanks in advance!



Let A be a matrix that is both triangular and unitary.
Then the columns of A are of length 1 and are orthogonal to each other.
Assume A is upper triangular, in this case.
Then set a$_n$ = column $n$ in A.



Clearly, since A is upper triangular and the columns are of length 1, then $ a$_1$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
pm 1 \
0 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



Now column $a_2$ has a similar composition with $a_1$. That is, on the diagonal of the entire matrix A, its second component here, $y_2$, has the value $pm$ 1 and zeros in all other components. This is due to first only two options exists for non-zero entries in the columns since A is upper triangular. Second since $a_1$*$a_2$ = 0 by orthogonality we have:



$$
1*y_1 + 0*y_2 + 0 + 0 + ... + 0 = 0
$$



Where $a_2$ is made up of components $y_1$, $y_2$ , ... $y_n$. So clearly $y_1$ must be zero, and for i > 2 we know $y_i$ = 0, by the upper triangular property



$ a$_2$ = $$
begin{bmatrix}
0 \
pm 1 \
0 \
vdots \
0 \
end{bmatrix}
$$
$



The remainder of the proof uses induction after examining these first two cases as the base case.



Let the following claim hold for $a_n$, we wish to prove that $a_(n+1)$ is a zero vector except in its n+1 component (where $pm$ 1 resides). Then given the $a_(n+1)$ column we note that by the orthogonality with all the previous n columns we can show that 0 must be the value of the first n components in $a_(n+1)$.



for any ith component in the column for i < n+1 we have:



$a_1$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 1st component must be zero (similarly to above)



$a_2$ * $a_n+1$ = 0 => the 2nd component must be zero (similarly to above)
and so on ... until we conclude that each component up to the n+1 component must be equal to zero by orthogonality.



Hence only the $n+1$ component in the column $a_(n+1)$ can be equal to $pm$ 1 since all other inner products with the previous n columns indicate the remaining components must be zero (and any components below are zero due to A being upper triangular).



Hence for the upper triangular case, the matrix A must be diagonal.



I believe the lower triangular case to be a similar proof, but have not delved into it yet.



Thanks!







linear-algebra proof-verification






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edited Dec 23 '18 at 8:35









user1551

74.5k566129




74.5k566129










asked Dec 23 '18 at 6:08









H_1317H_1317

19310




19310








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    pm gives $pm$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 6:26










  • $begingroup$
    Your proof looks okay to me
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 12:00














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    pm gives $pm$.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 6:26










  • $begingroup$
    Your proof looks okay to me
    $endgroup$
    – Shubham Johri
    Dec 23 '18 at 12:00








2




2




$begingroup$
pm gives $pm$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 6:26




$begingroup$
pm gives $pm$.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 6:26












$begingroup$
Your proof looks okay to me
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 23 '18 at 12:00




$begingroup$
Your proof looks okay to me
$endgroup$
– Shubham Johri
Dec 23 '18 at 12:00










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

I think our OP H_1317's proof is conceptually correct.



Here is a more somewhat more abstract proof:



Suppose $A$ is upper triangular; then I claim that $A^{-1}$ is also upper triangular; for we may write



$A = D + T, tag 1$



where $D$ is diagonal and $T$ is strictly upper triangular; that is, the diagonal entries of $T$ are all zero; we observe that, since $A$ is triangular, $det(A)$ is the product of the diagonal entries of $A$; since $A$ is unitary, it is non-singular and thus $det(A) ne 0$, so none of the diagonal entries of $A$ vanish, and the same applies to $D$; therefore $D$ is invertible and we may write



$A = D(I + D^{-1}T); tag 2$



we next observe that $D^{-1}T$ is itself strictly upper triangular, hence nilpotent; in fact we have



$(D^{-1}T)^n = 0, tag 3$



where $n = text{size}(A)$; the nilpotence of $D^{-1}T$ allows us to write an explicit inverse for $I + D^{-1}T$; indeed, we have the well-known formula



$(I + D^{-1}T) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k = I + (-1)^n (D^{-1}T)^n = I; tag 4$



thus,



$(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k; tag 5$



since every matrix $(-D^{-1}T)^k$ occurring in this sum is upper triangular, we see that $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}$ is upper triangular as well; from (2),



$A^{-1} = (I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}D^{-1}, tag 6$



which shows that $A^{-1}$ is upper triangular.



Having established my claim, we now invoke the unitarity of $A$:



$A^dagger A = AA^dagger = I, tag 7$



i.e.,



$A^dagger = A^{-1}; tag 8$



we have by definition



$A^dagger = (A^ast)^T = ((D + T)^ast)^T = (D^ast + T^ast)^T = (D^ast)^T + (T^ast)^T, tag 9$



from which we see that $A^dagger$ is lower triangular when $A$, and hence $A^{-1}$, is upper triangular;
then only way (8) can hold is with $T = 0$; therefore we see that



$A = D tag{10}$



is a diagonal matrix.



Of course, if $A$ is lower triangular the same result binds, the proof almost identical to that given above. $OEDelta$.






share|cite|improve this answer











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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:14






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:16



















0












$begingroup$

Here is a proof that an invertible lower triangular matrix has a lower triangular inverse only using elementary row operations. From this it clearly follows that a unitary triangular matrix must be diagonal.



Suppose a lower triangular matrix $A$ is invertible, say
$$
A=begin{bmatrix}
a_{11} & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 \
a_{21} & a_{22} & 0 & dots & 0 \
vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \
a_{n1} & a_{n2} & a_{n3} & dots & a_{nn}
end{bmatrix}
$$

Then $a_{ii}ne0$, for $i=1,2,dots,n$.



Denote by $E_i(c)$ the matrix obtained from the $ntimes n$ identity matrix by multiplying the $i$-th row by $cne0$; similarly, denote by $E_{ij}(d)$ the matrix obtained from the identity by adding to the $i$-th row the $j$-th row multiplied by $d$ (here it is assumed that $ine j$).



Note that $E_i(c)$ ($cne0$) and $E_{ij}(d)$ ($ine j$) are invertible lower triangular matrices and their inverses are, respectively, $E_i(c^{-1})$ and $E_{ij}(-d)$, again lower triangular.



Then it is easily seen that multiplying a matrix on the left by $E_i(c)$ or $E_{ij}(d)$ is the same as performing the corresponding elementary row operation on $A$. You can also verify that the product
$$
E_1(a_{11})E_{21}(a_{21})dotsm E_{n1}(a_{n1}) E_{2}(a_{22})dotsm E_{n}(a_{nn})I_n
$$

gives back the matrix $A$, just by performing successively the elementary row operations: starting from the right, the first row operations places $a_{nn}$ at position $(n,n)$; the following one is $E_{n,n-1}(a_{n,n-1})$ will place $a_{n-1,n}$ at position $(n-1,n)$. These two entries will be unaffected by the subsequent row operations and the same is for all the other matrix multiplications/row operations. You can see that the matrix is “filled in” starting from the lower left corner, going then left and up until the diagonal is reached.



Therefore $A$ is the product of lower triangular matrices each of them having a lower triangular inverse; hence also $A^{-1}$ is lower triangular as well.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    3












    $begingroup$

    I think our OP H_1317's proof is conceptually correct.



    Here is a more somewhat more abstract proof:



    Suppose $A$ is upper triangular; then I claim that $A^{-1}$ is also upper triangular; for we may write



    $A = D + T, tag 1$



    where $D$ is diagonal and $T$ is strictly upper triangular; that is, the diagonal entries of $T$ are all zero; we observe that, since $A$ is triangular, $det(A)$ is the product of the diagonal entries of $A$; since $A$ is unitary, it is non-singular and thus $det(A) ne 0$, so none of the diagonal entries of $A$ vanish, and the same applies to $D$; therefore $D$ is invertible and we may write



    $A = D(I + D^{-1}T); tag 2$



    we next observe that $D^{-1}T$ is itself strictly upper triangular, hence nilpotent; in fact we have



    $(D^{-1}T)^n = 0, tag 3$



    where $n = text{size}(A)$; the nilpotence of $D^{-1}T$ allows us to write an explicit inverse for $I + D^{-1}T$; indeed, we have the well-known formula



    $(I + D^{-1}T) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k = I + (-1)^n (D^{-1}T)^n = I; tag 4$



    thus,



    $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k; tag 5$



    since every matrix $(-D^{-1}T)^k$ occurring in this sum is upper triangular, we see that $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}$ is upper triangular as well; from (2),



    $A^{-1} = (I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}D^{-1}, tag 6$



    which shows that $A^{-1}$ is upper triangular.



    Having established my claim, we now invoke the unitarity of $A$:



    $A^dagger A = AA^dagger = I, tag 7$



    i.e.,



    $A^dagger = A^{-1}; tag 8$



    we have by definition



    $A^dagger = (A^ast)^T = ((D + T)^ast)^T = (D^ast + T^ast)^T = (D^ast)^T + (T^ast)^T, tag 9$



    from which we see that $A^dagger$ is lower triangular when $A$, and hence $A^{-1}$, is upper triangular;
    then only way (8) can hold is with $T = 0$; therefore we see that



    $A = D tag{10}$



    is a diagonal matrix.



    Of course, if $A$ is lower triangular the same result binds, the proof almost identical to that given above. $OEDelta$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:14






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:16
















    3












    $begingroup$

    I think our OP H_1317's proof is conceptually correct.



    Here is a more somewhat more abstract proof:



    Suppose $A$ is upper triangular; then I claim that $A^{-1}$ is also upper triangular; for we may write



    $A = D + T, tag 1$



    where $D$ is diagonal and $T$ is strictly upper triangular; that is, the diagonal entries of $T$ are all zero; we observe that, since $A$ is triangular, $det(A)$ is the product of the diagonal entries of $A$; since $A$ is unitary, it is non-singular and thus $det(A) ne 0$, so none of the diagonal entries of $A$ vanish, and the same applies to $D$; therefore $D$ is invertible and we may write



    $A = D(I + D^{-1}T); tag 2$



    we next observe that $D^{-1}T$ is itself strictly upper triangular, hence nilpotent; in fact we have



    $(D^{-1}T)^n = 0, tag 3$



    where $n = text{size}(A)$; the nilpotence of $D^{-1}T$ allows us to write an explicit inverse for $I + D^{-1}T$; indeed, we have the well-known formula



    $(I + D^{-1}T) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k = I + (-1)^n (D^{-1}T)^n = I; tag 4$



    thus,



    $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k; tag 5$



    since every matrix $(-D^{-1}T)^k$ occurring in this sum is upper triangular, we see that $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}$ is upper triangular as well; from (2),



    $A^{-1} = (I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}D^{-1}, tag 6$



    which shows that $A^{-1}$ is upper triangular.



    Having established my claim, we now invoke the unitarity of $A$:



    $A^dagger A = AA^dagger = I, tag 7$



    i.e.,



    $A^dagger = A^{-1}; tag 8$



    we have by definition



    $A^dagger = (A^ast)^T = ((D + T)^ast)^T = (D^ast + T^ast)^T = (D^ast)^T + (T^ast)^T, tag 9$



    from which we see that $A^dagger$ is lower triangular when $A$, and hence $A^{-1}$, is upper triangular;
    then only way (8) can hold is with $T = 0$; therefore we see that



    $A = D tag{10}$



    is a diagonal matrix.



    Of course, if $A$ is lower triangular the same result binds, the proof almost identical to that given above. $OEDelta$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$









    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:14






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:16














    3












    3








    3





    $begingroup$

    I think our OP H_1317's proof is conceptually correct.



    Here is a more somewhat more abstract proof:



    Suppose $A$ is upper triangular; then I claim that $A^{-1}$ is also upper triangular; for we may write



    $A = D + T, tag 1$



    where $D$ is diagonal and $T$ is strictly upper triangular; that is, the diagonal entries of $T$ are all zero; we observe that, since $A$ is triangular, $det(A)$ is the product of the diagonal entries of $A$; since $A$ is unitary, it is non-singular and thus $det(A) ne 0$, so none of the diagonal entries of $A$ vanish, and the same applies to $D$; therefore $D$ is invertible and we may write



    $A = D(I + D^{-1}T); tag 2$



    we next observe that $D^{-1}T$ is itself strictly upper triangular, hence nilpotent; in fact we have



    $(D^{-1}T)^n = 0, tag 3$



    where $n = text{size}(A)$; the nilpotence of $D^{-1}T$ allows us to write an explicit inverse for $I + D^{-1}T$; indeed, we have the well-known formula



    $(I + D^{-1}T) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k = I + (-1)^n (D^{-1}T)^n = I; tag 4$



    thus,



    $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k; tag 5$



    since every matrix $(-D^{-1}T)^k$ occurring in this sum is upper triangular, we see that $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}$ is upper triangular as well; from (2),



    $A^{-1} = (I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}D^{-1}, tag 6$



    which shows that $A^{-1}$ is upper triangular.



    Having established my claim, we now invoke the unitarity of $A$:



    $A^dagger A = AA^dagger = I, tag 7$



    i.e.,



    $A^dagger = A^{-1}; tag 8$



    we have by definition



    $A^dagger = (A^ast)^T = ((D + T)^ast)^T = (D^ast + T^ast)^T = (D^ast)^T + (T^ast)^T, tag 9$



    from which we see that $A^dagger$ is lower triangular when $A$, and hence $A^{-1}$, is upper triangular;
    then only way (8) can hold is with $T = 0$; therefore we see that



    $A = D tag{10}$



    is a diagonal matrix.



    Of course, if $A$ is lower triangular the same result binds, the proof almost identical to that given above. $OEDelta$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    I think our OP H_1317's proof is conceptually correct.



    Here is a more somewhat more abstract proof:



    Suppose $A$ is upper triangular; then I claim that $A^{-1}$ is also upper triangular; for we may write



    $A = D + T, tag 1$



    where $D$ is diagonal and $T$ is strictly upper triangular; that is, the diagonal entries of $T$ are all zero; we observe that, since $A$ is triangular, $det(A)$ is the product of the diagonal entries of $A$; since $A$ is unitary, it is non-singular and thus $det(A) ne 0$, so none of the diagonal entries of $A$ vanish, and the same applies to $D$; therefore $D$ is invertible and we may write



    $A = D(I + D^{-1}T); tag 2$



    we next observe that $D^{-1}T$ is itself strictly upper triangular, hence nilpotent; in fact we have



    $(D^{-1}T)^n = 0, tag 3$



    where $n = text{size}(A)$; the nilpotence of $D^{-1}T$ allows us to write an explicit inverse for $I + D^{-1}T$; indeed, we have the well-known formula



    $(I + D^{-1}T) displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k = I + (-1)^n (D^{-1}T)^n = I; tag 4$



    thus,



    $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1} = displaystyle sum_0^{n - 1} (-D^{-1}T)^k; tag 5$



    since every matrix $(-D^{-1}T)^k$ occurring in this sum is upper triangular, we see that $(I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}$ is upper triangular as well; from (2),



    $A^{-1} = (I + D^{-1}T)^{-1}D^{-1}, tag 6$



    which shows that $A^{-1}$ is upper triangular.



    Having established my claim, we now invoke the unitarity of $A$:



    $A^dagger A = AA^dagger = I, tag 7$



    i.e.,



    $A^dagger = A^{-1}; tag 8$



    we have by definition



    $A^dagger = (A^ast)^T = ((D + T)^ast)^T = (D^ast + T^ast)^T = (D^ast)^T + (T^ast)^T, tag 9$



    from which we see that $A^dagger$ is lower triangular when $A$, and hence $A^{-1}$, is upper triangular;
    then only way (8) can hold is with $T = 0$; therefore we see that



    $A = D tag{10}$



    is a diagonal matrix.



    Of course, if $A$ is lower triangular the same result binds, the proof almost identical to that given above. $OEDelta$.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Dec 23 '18 at 21:06

























    answered Dec 23 '18 at 20:18









    Robert LewisRobert Lewis

    49.1k23168




    49.1k23168








    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:14






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:16














    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:12






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
      $endgroup$
      – Robert Lewis
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:14






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
      $endgroup$
      – H_1317
      Dec 23 '18 at 21:16








    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:12




    $begingroup$
    Thanks for the alternate proof. would my conceptually correct answer be equivalent to normally correct here?
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:12




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:14




    $begingroup$
    @H_1317: Yes, I think so; the only reason I said "conceptually correct" instead of simpley "correct" was that I was having a little trouble sorting out your equations $a_1 ast a_n + 1 = 0$ etc. But I think I've got it now.
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Lewis
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:14




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:16




    $begingroup$
    Ahh yes — those equations in the induction part were my biggest worry for a potential error or maybe just not convincing enough.
    $endgroup$
    – H_1317
    Dec 23 '18 at 21:16











    0












    $begingroup$

    Here is a proof that an invertible lower triangular matrix has a lower triangular inverse only using elementary row operations. From this it clearly follows that a unitary triangular matrix must be diagonal.



    Suppose a lower triangular matrix $A$ is invertible, say
    $$
    A=begin{bmatrix}
    a_{11} & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 \
    a_{21} & a_{22} & 0 & dots & 0 \
    vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \
    a_{n1} & a_{n2} & a_{n3} & dots & a_{nn}
    end{bmatrix}
    $$

    Then $a_{ii}ne0$, for $i=1,2,dots,n$.



    Denote by $E_i(c)$ the matrix obtained from the $ntimes n$ identity matrix by multiplying the $i$-th row by $cne0$; similarly, denote by $E_{ij}(d)$ the matrix obtained from the identity by adding to the $i$-th row the $j$-th row multiplied by $d$ (here it is assumed that $ine j$).



    Note that $E_i(c)$ ($cne0$) and $E_{ij}(d)$ ($ine j$) are invertible lower triangular matrices and their inverses are, respectively, $E_i(c^{-1})$ and $E_{ij}(-d)$, again lower triangular.



    Then it is easily seen that multiplying a matrix on the left by $E_i(c)$ or $E_{ij}(d)$ is the same as performing the corresponding elementary row operation on $A$. You can also verify that the product
    $$
    E_1(a_{11})E_{21}(a_{21})dotsm E_{n1}(a_{n1}) E_{2}(a_{22})dotsm E_{n}(a_{nn})I_n
    $$

    gives back the matrix $A$, just by performing successively the elementary row operations: starting from the right, the first row operations places $a_{nn}$ at position $(n,n)$; the following one is $E_{n,n-1}(a_{n,n-1})$ will place $a_{n-1,n}$ at position $(n-1,n)$. These two entries will be unaffected by the subsequent row operations and the same is for all the other matrix multiplications/row operations. You can see that the matrix is “filled in” starting from the lower left corner, going then left and up until the diagonal is reached.



    Therefore $A$ is the product of lower triangular matrices each of them having a lower triangular inverse; hence also $A^{-1}$ is lower triangular as well.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      Here is a proof that an invertible lower triangular matrix has a lower triangular inverse only using elementary row operations. From this it clearly follows that a unitary triangular matrix must be diagonal.



      Suppose a lower triangular matrix $A$ is invertible, say
      $$
      A=begin{bmatrix}
      a_{11} & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 \
      a_{21} & a_{22} & 0 & dots & 0 \
      vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \
      a_{n1} & a_{n2} & a_{n3} & dots & a_{nn}
      end{bmatrix}
      $$

      Then $a_{ii}ne0$, for $i=1,2,dots,n$.



      Denote by $E_i(c)$ the matrix obtained from the $ntimes n$ identity matrix by multiplying the $i$-th row by $cne0$; similarly, denote by $E_{ij}(d)$ the matrix obtained from the identity by adding to the $i$-th row the $j$-th row multiplied by $d$ (here it is assumed that $ine j$).



      Note that $E_i(c)$ ($cne0$) and $E_{ij}(d)$ ($ine j$) are invertible lower triangular matrices and their inverses are, respectively, $E_i(c^{-1})$ and $E_{ij}(-d)$, again lower triangular.



      Then it is easily seen that multiplying a matrix on the left by $E_i(c)$ or $E_{ij}(d)$ is the same as performing the corresponding elementary row operation on $A$. You can also verify that the product
      $$
      E_1(a_{11})E_{21}(a_{21})dotsm E_{n1}(a_{n1}) E_{2}(a_{22})dotsm E_{n}(a_{nn})I_n
      $$

      gives back the matrix $A$, just by performing successively the elementary row operations: starting from the right, the first row operations places $a_{nn}$ at position $(n,n)$; the following one is $E_{n,n-1}(a_{n,n-1})$ will place $a_{n-1,n}$ at position $(n-1,n)$. These two entries will be unaffected by the subsequent row operations and the same is for all the other matrix multiplications/row operations. You can see that the matrix is “filled in” starting from the lower left corner, going then left and up until the diagonal is reached.



      Therefore $A$ is the product of lower triangular matrices each of them having a lower triangular inverse; hence also $A^{-1}$ is lower triangular as well.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        Here is a proof that an invertible lower triangular matrix has a lower triangular inverse only using elementary row operations. From this it clearly follows that a unitary triangular matrix must be diagonal.



        Suppose a lower triangular matrix $A$ is invertible, say
        $$
        A=begin{bmatrix}
        a_{11} & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 \
        a_{21} & a_{22} & 0 & dots & 0 \
        vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \
        a_{n1} & a_{n2} & a_{n3} & dots & a_{nn}
        end{bmatrix}
        $$

        Then $a_{ii}ne0$, for $i=1,2,dots,n$.



        Denote by $E_i(c)$ the matrix obtained from the $ntimes n$ identity matrix by multiplying the $i$-th row by $cne0$; similarly, denote by $E_{ij}(d)$ the matrix obtained from the identity by adding to the $i$-th row the $j$-th row multiplied by $d$ (here it is assumed that $ine j$).



        Note that $E_i(c)$ ($cne0$) and $E_{ij}(d)$ ($ine j$) are invertible lower triangular matrices and their inverses are, respectively, $E_i(c^{-1})$ and $E_{ij}(-d)$, again lower triangular.



        Then it is easily seen that multiplying a matrix on the left by $E_i(c)$ or $E_{ij}(d)$ is the same as performing the corresponding elementary row operation on $A$. You can also verify that the product
        $$
        E_1(a_{11})E_{21}(a_{21})dotsm E_{n1}(a_{n1}) E_{2}(a_{22})dotsm E_{n}(a_{nn})I_n
        $$

        gives back the matrix $A$, just by performing successively the elementary row operations: starting from the right, the first row operations places $a_{nn}$ at position $(n,n)$; the following one is $E_{n,n-1}(a_{n,n-1})$ will place $a_{n-1,n}$ at position $(n-1,n)$. These two entries will be unaffected by the subsequent row operations and the same is for all the other matrix multiplications/row operations. You can see that the matrix is “filled in” starting from the lower left corner, going then left and up until the diagonal is reached.



        Therefore $A$ is the product of lower triangular matrices each of them having a lower triangular inverse; hence also $A^{-1}$ is lower triangular as well.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Here is a proof that an invertible lower triangular matrix has a lower triangular inverse only using elementary row operations. From this it clearly follows that a unitary triangular matrix must be diagonal.



        Suppose a lower triangular matrix $A$ is invertible, say
        $$
        A=begin{bmatrix}
        a_{11} & 0 & 0 & dots & 0 \
        a_{21} & a_{22} & 0 & dots & 0 \
        vdots & vdots & vdots & ddots & vdots \
        a_{n1} & a_{n2} & a_{n3} & dots & a_{nn}
        end{bmatrix}
        $$

        Then $a_{ii}ne0$, for $i=1,2,dots,n$.



        Denote by $E_i(c)$ the matrix obtained from the $ntimes n$ identity matrix by multiplying the $i$-th row by $cne0$; similarly, denote by $E_{ij}(d)$ the matrix obtained from the identity by adding to the $i$-th row the $j$-th row multiplied by $d$ (here it is assumed that $ine j$).



        Note that $E_i(c)$ ($cne0$) and $E_{ij}(d)$ ($ine j$) are invertible lower triangular matrices and their inverses are, respectively, $E_i(c^{-1})$ and $E_{ij}(-d)$, again lower triangular.



        Then it is easily seen that multiplying a matrix on the left by $E_i(c)$ or $E_{ij}(d)$ is the same as performing the corresponding elementary row operation on $A$. You can also verify that the product
        $$
        E_1(a_{11})E_{21}(a_{21})dotsm E_{n1}(a_{n1}) E_{2}(a_{22})dotsm E_{n}(a_{nn})I_n
        $$

        gives back the matrix $A$, just by performing successively the elementary row operations: starting from the right, the first row operations places $a_{nn}$ at position $(n,n)$; the following one is $E_{n,n-1}(a_{n,n-1})$ will place $a_{n-1,n}$ at position $(n-1,n)$. These two entries will be unaffected by the subsequent row operations and the same is for all the other matrix multiplications/row operations. You can see that the matrix is “filled in” starting from the lower left corner, going then left and up until the diagonal is reached.



        Therefore $A$ is the product of lower triangular matrices each of them having a lower triangular inverse; hence also $A^{-1}$ is lower triangular as well.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 23 '18 at 22:35









        egregegreg

        186k1486209




        186k1486209






























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