Proving the union of a countable collection of measurable sets is measurable.












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$begingroup$


Let $E$ be the union of a countable collection of measurable sets.



Then there is a countable disjoint collection of measurable sets {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^infty$ for which $E = cup_{k=1}^infty E_k$.



Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number.



Define $F_n = cup_{k=1}^n E_k$.



Since $F_n$ is measurable and $F_n^{c}supset E^c$,



$m^*(A) = m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap F_n^c) ge m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap E^c)$ , and



$m^*(Acap F_n) = sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(Acap E_k)$. (Since {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^n$ is a finite disjoint collection of measurable sets.)



Thus $m^*(A)ge sum_{k=1}^n m^*(Acap E_k) + m^*(Acap E^c) $



The left-hand side of this inequality is "independent" of n.....(omitted)



I want to ask what "indepdendent" means? and why it is "independent" of n?










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    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $E$ be the union of a countable collection of measurable sets.



    Then there is a countable disjoint collection of measurable sets {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^infty$ for which $E = cup_{k=1}^infty E_k$.



    Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number.



    Define $F_n = cup_{k=1}^n E_k$.



    Since $F_n$ is measurable and $F_n^{c}supset E^c$,



    $m^*(A) = m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap F_n^c) ge m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap E^c)$ , and



    $m^*(Acap F_n) = sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(Acap E_k)$. (Since {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^n$ is a finite disjoint collection of measurable sets.)



    Thus $m^*(A)ge sum_{k=1}^n m^*(Acap E_k) + m^*(Acap E^c) $



    The left-hand side of this inequality is "independent" of n.....(omitted)



    I want to ask what "indepdendent" means? and why it is "independent" of n?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $E$ be the union of a countable collection of measurable sets.



      Then there is a countable disjoint collection of measurable sets {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^infty$ for which $E = cup_{k=1}^infty E_k$.



      Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number.



      Define $F_n = cup_{k=1}^n E_k$.



      Since $F_n$ is measurable and $F_n^{c}supset E^c$,



      $m^*(A) = m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap F_n^c) ge m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap E^c)$ , and



      $m^*(Acap F_n) = sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(Acap E_k)$. (Since {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^n$ is a finite disjoint collection of measurable sets.)



      Thus $m^*(A)ge sum_{k=1}^n m^*(Acap E_k) + m^*(Acap E^c) $



      The left-hand side of this inequality is "independent" of n.....(omitted)



      I want to ask what "indepdendent" means? and why it is "independent" of n?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $E$ be the union of a countable collection of measurable sets.



      Then there is a countable disjoint collection of measurable sets {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^infty$ for which $E = cup_{k=1}^infty E_k$.



      Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number.



      Define $F_n = cup_{k=1}^n E_k$.



      Since $F_n$ is measurable and $F_n^{c}supset E^c$,



      $m^*(A) = m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap F_n^c) ge m^*(Acap F_n) + m^*(Acap E^c)$ , and



      $m^*(Acap F_n) = sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(Acap E_k)$. (Since {$E_k$}$_{k=1}^n$ is a finite disjoint collection of measurable sets.)



      Thus $m^*(A)ge sum_{k=1}^n m^*(Acap E_k) + m^*(Acap E^c) $



      The left-hand side of this inequality is "independent" of n.....(omitted)



      I want to ask what "indepdendent" means? and why it is "independent" of n?







      real-analysis






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      asked Sep 18 '16 at 13:09









      JAEMTOJAEMTO

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          $begingroup$

          We can say that it is independent of $n$ in the following way, following this reference.



          By additivity of finite unions, we have: $m^*(A cap F_n) = m^*(A cap E_1) + ldots m^*(A cap E_n)$ for arbitrary $n$.



          If we let $n rightarrow infty$, then the LHS tends to $m^*(A cap E)$ and the RHS tends to $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$. Since the finite sum is composed of positive numbers, if we consider the full expression $m^*(A) geq sum_{k=1}^n m^*(A cap E_k) + m^*(A cap E^C)$, for each $n$, we see that the partial sum is bounded. This means that the infinite sum is bounded, and hence "independent" of $n$.



          Finally, we can use the subadditivity of of outer measure on the term $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$ and see that it is larger than the union of the $(A cap E_k)$ terms, i.e., $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k) geq m^* bigcup_{k=1}^infty (A cap E_k)$.



          So my takeaway is that "independent" means that we can make this argument for any $n$, and as $n$ approaches infinity, the union becomes $E$, i.e., the leftover "stuff" in $E$ that is not yet included in the union is measure zero (thought I'm not sure if this interpretation is right).






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$





















            0












            $begingroup$

            Suppose you change the line "Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number." to "Let $A$ be any set. Then $forall nin Bbb N....$"



            The inequality you have difficulty with should then say $forall nin Bbb N;( m^*(A)geq$... (et cetera)...). The last inequality holds for $every $ $nin Bbb N$



            It follows immediately that $m^*(A)geq$ $ m^*(Acap E^c)+sup_{nin Bbb N}sum_{k=1}^nm^*(Acap E_k)=$ $=m^*(Acap E^c)+sum_{k=1}^{infty}m^*(E_k).$






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
              2






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              active

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              0












              $begingroup$

              We can say that it is independent of $n$ in the following way, following this reference.



              By additivity of finite unions, we have: $m^*(A cap F_n) = m^*(A cap E_1) + ldots m^*(A cap E_n)$ for arbitrary $n$.



              If we let $n rightarrow infty$, then the LHS tends to $m^*(A cap E)$ and the RHS tends to $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$. Since the finite sum is composed of positive numbers, if we consider the full expression $m^*(A) geq sum_{k=1}^n m^*(A cap E_k) + m^*(A cap E^C)$, for each $n$, we see that the partial sum is bounded. This means that the infinite sum is bounded, and hence "independent" of $n$.



              Finally, we can use the subadditivity of of outer measure on the term $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$ and see that it is larger than the union of the $(A cap E_k)$ terms, i.e., $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k) geq m^* bigcup_{k=1}^infty (A cap E_k)$.



              So my takeaway is that "independent" means that we can make this argument for any $n$, and as $n$ approaches infinity, the union becomes $E$, i.e., the leftover "stuff" in $E$ that is not yet included in the union is measure zero (thought I'm not sure if this interpretation is right).






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                We can say that it is independent of $n$ in the following way, following this reference.



                By additivity of finite unions, we have: $m^*(A cap F_n) = m^*(A cap E_1) + ldots m^*(A cap E_n)$ for arbitrary $n$.



                If we let $n rightarrow infty$, then the LHS tends to $m^*(A cap E)$ and the RHS tends to $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$. Since the finite sum is composed of positive numbers, if we consider the full expression $m^*(A) geq sum_{k=1}^n m^*(A cap E_k) + m^*(A cap E^C)$, for each $n$, we see that the partial sum is bounded. This means that the infinite sum is bounded, and hence "independent" of $n$.



                Finally, we can use the subadditivity of of outer measure on the term $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$ and see that it is larger than the union of the $(A cap E_k)$ terms, i.e., $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k) geq m^* bigcup_{k=1}^infty (A cap E_k)$.



                So my takeaway is that "independent" means that we can make this argument for any $n$, and as $n$ approaches infinity, the union becomes $E$, i.e., the leftover "stuff" in $E$ that is not yet included in the union is measure zero (thought I'm not sure if this interpretation is right).






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  We can say that it is independent of $n$ in the following way, following this reference.



                  By additivity of finite unions, we have: $m^*(A cap F_n) = m^*(A cap E_1) + ldots m^*(A cap E_n)$ for arbitrary $n$.



                  If we let $n rightarrow infty$, then the LHS tends to $m^*(A cap E)$ and the RHS tends to $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$. Since the finite sum is composed of positive numbers, if we consider the full expression $m^*(A) geq sum_{k=1}^n m^*(A cap E_k) + m^*(A cap E^C)$, for each $n$, we see that the partial sum is bounded. This means that the infinite sum is bounded, and hence "independent" of $n$.



                  Finally, we can use the subadditivity of of outer measure on the term $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$ and see that it is larger than the union of the $(A cap E_k)$ terms, i.e., $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k) geq m^* bigcup_{k=1}^infty (A cap E_k)$.



                  So my takeaway is that "independent" means that we can make this argument for any $n$, and as $n$ approaches infinity, the union becomes $E$, i.e., the leftover "stuff" in $E$ that is not yet included in the union is measure zero (thought I'm not sure if this interpretation is right).






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  We can say that it is independent of $n$ in the following way, following this reference.



                  By additivity of finite unions, we have: $m^*(A cap F_n) = m^*(A cap E_1) + ldots m^*(A cap E_n)$ for arbitrary $n$.



                  If we let $n rightarrow infty$, then the LHS tends to $m^*(A cap E)$ and the RHS tends to $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$. Since the finite sum is composed of positive numbers, if we consider the full expression $m^*(A) geq sum_{k=1}^n m^*(A cap E_k) + m^*(A cap E^C)$, for each $n$, we see that the partial sum is bounded. This means that the infinite sum is bounded, and hence "independent" of $n$.



                  Finally, we can use the subadditivity of of outer measure on the term $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k)$ and see that it is larger than the union of the $(A cap E_k)$ terms, i.e., $sum_{k=1}^infty m^*(A cap E_k) geq m^* bigcup_{k=1}^infty (A cap E_k)$.



                  So my takeaway is that "independent" means that we can make this argument for any $n$, and as $n$ approaches infinity, the union becomes $E$, i.e., the leftover "stuff" in $E$ that is not yet included in the union is measure zero (thought I'm not sure if this interpretation is right).







                  share|cite|improve this answer














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                  edited Jan 20 '17 at 19:14

























                  answered Jan 20 '17 at 18:45









                  jjjjjjjjjjjj

                  1,209516




                  1,209516























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      Suppose you change the line "Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number." to "Let $A$ be any set. Then $forall nin Bbb N....$"



                      The inequality you have difficulty with should then say $forall nin Bbb N;( m^*(A)geq$... (et cetera)...). The last inequality holds for $every $ $nin Bbb N$



                      It follows immediately that $m^*(A)geq$ $ m^*(Acap E^c)+sup_{nin Bbb N}sum_{k=1}^nm^*(Acap E_k)=$ $=m^*(Acap E^c)+sum_{k=1}^{infty}m^*(E_k).$






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Suppose you change the line "Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number." to "Let $A$ be any set. Then $forall nin Bbb N....$"



                        The inequality you have difficulty with should then say $forall nin Bbb N;( m^*(A)geq$... (et cetera)...). The last inequality holds for $every $ $nin Bbb N$



                        It follows immediately that $m^*(A)geq$ $ m^*(Acap E^c)+sup_{nin Bbb N}sum_{k=1}^nm^*(Acap E_k)=$ $=m^*(Acap E^c)+sum_{k=1}^{infty}m^*(E_k).$






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          Suppose you change the line "Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number." to "Let $A$ be any set. Then $forall nin Bbb N....$"



                          The inequality you have difficulty with should then say $forall nin Bbb N;( m^*(A)geq$... (et cetera)...). The last inequality holds for $every $ $nin Bbb N$



                          It follows immediately that $m^*(A)geq$ $ m^*(Acap E^c)+sup_{nin Bbb N}sum_{k=1}^nm^*(Acap E_k)=$ $=m^*(Acap E^c)+sum_{k=1}^{infty}m^*(E_k).$






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Suppose you change the line "Let $A$ be any set. Let $n$ be a natural number." to "Let $A$ be any set. Then $forall nin Bbb N....$"



                          The inequality you have difficulty with should then say $forall nin Bbb N;( m^*(A)geq$... (et cetera)...). The last inequality holds for $every $ $nin Bbb N$



                          It follows immediately that $m^*(A)geq$ $ m^*(Acap E^c)+sup_{nin Bbb N}sum_{k=1}^nm^*(Acap E_k)=$ $=m^*(Acap E^c)+sum_{k=1}^{infty}m^*(E_k).$







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered May 19 '18 at 1:54









                          DanielWainfleetDanielWainfleet

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                          36k31648






























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