Lebesgue Fundamental calculus theorem












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How can I formally show that if $f:[0,1]to mathbb{R}$ continuous, $f'(x)$ exists for everything $xin[0,1]$ y $sup_x |f'(x)|=B<infty$ then $sup_{n,x} |g_n(x)|leq B$ with $g_n(x)=frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n}$



I know that $f'(x)=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ and here I do not know if it can be done immediately that $f'(x)=lim_n  g_n(x).$
In this way, the idea is to "turn that lim into a sup" but I do not know formally how to do it.



How would it be?



Also like to prove that if $f$ is continuous, for any $x_0in [0,1]$ then



$lim_n (frac{1}{n})int_{0}^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)]dx=f(x_0)$?



If $f(0)=0$. How proves that $f(y)=int_{0}^{y}f'(x)dx$?
I know that it must be obtained from the above but I can not see the trick










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:22






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Stan Tendijck
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:50
















1












$begingroup$


How can I formally show that if $f:[0,1]to mathbb{R}$ continuous, $f'(x)$ exists for everything $xin[0,1]$ y $sup_x |f'(x)|=B<infty$ then $sup_{n,x} |g_n(x)|leq B$ with $g_n(x)=frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n}$



I know that $f'(x)=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ and here I do not know if it can be done immediately that $f'(x)=lim_n  g_n(x).$
In this way, the idea is to "turn that lim into a sup" but I do not know formally how to do it.



How would it be?



Also like to prove that if $f$ is continuous, for any $x_0in [0,1]$ then



$lim_n (frac{1}{n})int_{0}^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)]dx=f(x_0)$?



If $f(0)=0$. How proves that $f(y)=int_{0}^{y}f'(x)dx$?
I know that it must be obtained from the above but I can not see the trick










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:22






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Stan Tendijck
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:50














1












1








1





$begingroup$


How can I formally show that if $f:[0,1]to mathbb{R}$ continuous, $f'(x)$ exists for everything $xin[0,1]$ y $sup_x |f'(x)|=B<infty$ then $sup_{n,x} |g_n(x)|leq B$ with $g_n(x)=frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n}$



I know that $f'(x)=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ and here I do not know if it can be done immediately that $f'(x)=lim_n  g_n(x).$
In this way, the idea is to "turn that lim into a sup" but I do not know formally how to do it.



How would it be?



Also like to prove that if $f$ is continuous, for any $x_0in [0,1]$ then



$lim_n (frac{1}{n})int_{0}^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)]dx=f(x_0)$?



If $f(0)=0$. How proves that $f(y)=int_{0}^{y}f'(x)dx$?
I know that it must be obtained from the above but I can not see the trick










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How can I formally show that if $f:[0,1]to mathbb{R}$ continuous, $f'(x)$ exists for everything $xin[0,1]$ y $sup_x |f'(x)|=B<infty$ then $sup_{n,x} |g_n(x)|leq B$ with $g_n(x)=frac{f(x+1/n)-f(x)}{1/n}$



I know that $f'(x)=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}$ and here I do not know if it can be done immediately that $f'(x)=lim_n  g_n(x).$
In this way, the idea is to "turn that lim into a sup" but I do not know formally how to do it.



How would it be?



Also like to prove that if $f$ is continuous, for any $x_0in [0,1]$ then



$lim_n (frac{1}{n})int_{0}^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)]dx=f(x_0)$?



If $f(0)=0$. How proves that $f(y)=int_{0}^{y}f'(x)dx$?
I know that it must be obtained from the above but I can not see the trick







calculus real-analysis measure-theory lebesgue-integral lebesgue-measure






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edited Nov 29 '18 at 6:54







eraldcoil

















asked Nov 29 '18 at 0:17









eraldcoileraldcoil

388211




388211








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:22






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Stan Tendijck
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:50














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
    $endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:22






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Stan Tendijck
    Nov 29 '18 at 0:50








1




1




$begingroup$
Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:22




$begingroup$
Please, to make things clear, try not to have titles entirely consisting of $LaTeX$.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:22




2




2




$begingroup$
How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
$endgroup$
– Stan Tendijck
Nov 29 '18 at 0:50




$begingroup$
How would you define the limit in the second question if $x_0=1$ since $f(1+x)$ will not be defined for any $x>0$.
$endgroup$
– Stan Tendijck
Nov 29 '18 at 0:50










3 Answers
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First part is immediate from Mean Value Theorem. For second part use the fact that $$| n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|=| n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx|$$ $$leq n int_0^{1/n}|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|dx.$$ If $n$ is large enough then $|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)| <epsilon$ for all $x in [0,1/n]$. Can you complete the proof now? [I have used the fact that $ n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx=n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)$ which follows from the fact that $f(x_0)$ is a constant].






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:19










  • $begingroup$
    Anyway, I tried it :)
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:52






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:16



















1












$begingroup$

First part is wrong. Take $f(x)=x^2$, then $B=2$ whereas $g_1(1)=3>B$.



Scond part is fundamental theorem of calculus: Define $F(y) := int_0^y [f(x_0+x)] , dx$ for $yin [0,1-x_0]$. Then, $F$ is differentiable with $F'(y)=f(x_0+y)$, in particular $F'(0)=f(x_0)=lim_n (frac{1}{n})^{-1} int_0^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)],dx$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    To address the first question in a bit more detail. In a sense the general approach to this type of questions would be to separate the set $A={n: n=1,2,dots}$ to $B={n: n=1,2,dots,N}$ and $C:={n: n=N+1,N+2,dots}$. Working with the first set is usually easy and for the second set you can use the limit result.



    In more detail, we have $$ A = {|g_{n}(x)|: ninmathbb{N},xin[0,1]} $$
    and then split this one up in the two parts where $n$ is finite and the rest. To be precise, let $epsilon>0$, then because $g_n(x)to f'(x)$ there will exist an $N_{epsilon}inmathbb{N}$ such that $|g_n(x) - f'(x)|leq epsilon$ for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. In particular,
    $$|g_n(x)| leq |f'(x)| + epsilon leq B + epsilon $$
    for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. So this essentially covers up the second part since this implies that
    $$ sup_{ngeq N_{epsilon}}|g_n(x)| leq B + epsilon $$
    Note that we cannot just let $epsilon$ tend to $0$ because in general $N_{epsilon}$ would then converge to infinity.



    For the first part, you should use that $g_n$ is continuous and thus bounded on compact sets such as $[0,1]$. So we could get $|g_n(x)| leq max_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = M_n < infty$ and since we are considering only a finite number of these $n=1,2,dots,N_{epsilon}$ this will still be bounded.
    Indeed,
    $$ sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} M_n = max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon}) < infty. $$



    In the end, you get
    $$ sup_{ninmathbb{N}}sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| leq max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon},B+epsilon). $$
    for any $epsilon$. This is enough if the goal was for example to show that this supremum is bounded (take for example $epsilon=1$ and you'll see that the supremum will be finite. However, as Maliesen pointed out, you cannot expect that this $|g_n(x)| leq B$ but if the goal was to bound it, my line of reasoning is the best you can do.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
      $endgroup$
      – TheOscillator
      Nov 29 '18 at 12:40










    • $begingroup$
      Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
      $endgroup$
      – Stan Tendijck
      Nov 29 '18 at 15:20











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    3 Answers
    3






    active

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    First part is immediate from Mean Value Theorem. For second part use the fact that $$| n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|=| n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx|$$ $$leq n int_0^{1/n}|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|dx.$$ If $n$ is large enough then $|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)| <epsilon$ for all $x in [0,1/n]$. Can you complete the proof now? [I have used the fact that $ n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx=n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)$ which follows from the fact that $f(x_0)$ is a constant].






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:19










    • $begingroup$
      Anyway, I tried it :)
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:52






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Nov 29 '18 at 5:16
















    0












    $begingroup$

    First part is immediate from Mean Value Theorem. For second part use the fact that $$| n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|=| n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx|$$ $$leq n int_0^{1/n}|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|dx.$$ If $n$ is large enough then $|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)| <epsilon$ for all $x in [0,1/n]$. Can you complete the proof now? [I have used the fact that $ n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx=n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)$ which follows from the fact that $f(x_0)$ is a constant].






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:19










    • $begingroup$
      Anyway, I tried it :)
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:52






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Nov 29 '18 at 5:16














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    First part is immediate from Mean Value Theorem. For second part use the fact that $$| n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|=| n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx|$$ $$leq n int_0^{1/n}|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|dx.$$ If $n$ is large enough then $|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)| <epsilon$ for all $x in [0,1/n]$. Can you complete the proof now? [I have used the fact that $ n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx=n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)$ which follows from the fact that $f(x_0)$ is a constant].






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    First part is immediate from Mean Value Theorem. For second part use the fact that $$| n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|=| n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx|$$ $$leq n int_0^{1/n}|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)|dx.$$ If $n$ is large enough then $|f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)| <epsilon$ for all $x in [0,1/n]$. Can you complete the proof now? [I have used the fact that $ n int_0^{1/n} [f(x_0+x)-f(x_0)]dx=n int_0^{1/n} f(x_0+x)dx-f(x_0)$ which follows from the fact that $f(x_0)$ is a constant].







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Nov 29 '18 at 5:16

























    answered Nov 29 '18 at 0:29









    Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

    52.9k32055




    52.9k32055












    • $begingroup$
      But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:19










    • $begingroup$
      Anyway, I tried it :)
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:52






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Nov 29 '18 at 5:16


















    • $begingroup$
      But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:19










    • $begingroup$
      Anyway, I tried it :)
      $endgroup$
      – eraldcoil
      Nov 29 '18 at 4:52






    • 1




      $begingroup$
      @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
      $endgroup$
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Nov 29 '18 at 5:16
















    $begingroup$
    But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:19




    $begingroup$
    But is $(1/n)^{-1}$ not $1/n$
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:19












    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I tried it :)
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:52




    $begingroup$
    Anyway, I tried it :)
    $endgroup$
    – eraldcoil
    Nov 29 '18 at 4:52




    1




    1




    $begingroup$
    @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:16




    $begingroup$
    @eraldcoil That was a silly mistake. I have corrected it.
    $endgroup$
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 '18 at 5:16











    1












    $begingroup$

    First part is wrong. Take $f(x)=x^2$, then $B=2$ whereas $g_1(1)=3>B$.



    Scond part is fundamental theorem of calculus: Define $F(y) := int_0^y [f(x_0+x)] , dx$ for $yin [0,1-x_0]$. Then, $F$ is differentiable with $F'(y)=f(x_0+y)$, in particular $F'(0)=f(x_0)=lim_n (frac{1}{n})^{-1} int_0^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)],dx$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      First part is wrong. Take $f(x)=x^2$, then $B=2$ whereas $g_1(1)=3>B$.



      Scond part is fundamental theorem of calculus: Define $F(y) := int_0^y [f(x_0+x)] , dx$ for $yin [0,1-x_0]$. Then, $F$ is differentiable with $F'(y)=f(x_0+y)$, in particular $F'(0)=f(x_0)=lim_n (frac{1}{n})^{-1} int_0^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)],dx$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        First part is wrong. Take $f(x)=x^2$, then $B=2$ whereas $g_1(1)=3>B$.



        Scond part is fundamental theorem of calculus: Define $F(y) := int_0^y [f(x_0+x)] , dx$ for $yin [0,1-x_0]$. Then, $F$ is differentiable with $F'(y)=f(x_0+y)$, in particular $F'(0)=f(x_0)=lim_n (frac{1}{n})^{-1} int_0^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)],dx$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        First part is wrong. Take $f(x)=x^2$, then $B=2$ whereas $g_1(1)=3>B$.



        Scond part is fundamental theorem of calculus: Define $F(y) := int_0^y [f(x_0+x)] , dx$ for $yin [0,1-x_0]$. Then, $F$ is differentiable with $F'(y)=f(x_0+y)$, in particular $F'(0)=f(x_0)=lim_n (frac{1}{n})^{-1} int_0^{1/n}[f(x_0+x)],dx$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 29 '18 at 0:47

























        answered Nov 29 '18 at 0:40









        maliesenmaliesen

        18111




        18111























            1












            $begingroup$

            To address the first question in a bit more detail. In a sense the general approach to this type of questions would be to separate the set $A={n: n=1,2,dots}$ to $B={n: n=1,2,dots,N}$ and $C:={n: n=N+1,N+2,dots}$. Working with the first set is usually easy and for the second set you can use the limit result.



            In more detail, we have $$ A = {|g_{n}(x)|: ninmathbb{N},xin[0,1]} $$
            and then split this one up in the two parts where $n$ is finite and the rest. To be precise, let $epsilon>0$, then because $g_n(x)to f'(x)$ there will exist an $N_{epsilon}inmathbb{N}$ such that $|g_n(x) - f'(x)|leq epsilon$ for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. In particular,
            $$|g_n(x)| leq |f'(x)| + epsilon leq B + epsilon $$
            for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. So this essentially covers up the second part since this implies that
            $$ sup_{ngeq N_{epsilon}}|g_n(x)| leq B + epsilon $$
            Note that we cannot just let $epsilon$ tend to $0$ because in general $N_{epsilon}$ would then converge to infinity.



            For the first part, you should use that $g_n$ is continuous and thus bounded on compact sets such as $[0,1]$. So we could get $|g_n(x)| leq max_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = M_n < infty$ and since we are considering only a finite number of these $n=1,2,dots,N_{epsilon}$ this will still be bounded.
            Indeed,
            $$ sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} M_n = max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon}) < infty. $$



            In the end, you get
            $$ sup_{ninmathbb{N}}sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| leq max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon},B+epsilon). $$
            for any $epsilon$. This is enough if the goal was for example to show that this supremum is bounded (take for example $epsilon=1$ and you'll see that the supremum will be finite. However, as Maliesen pointed out, you cannot expect that this $|g_n(x)| leq B$ but if the goal was to bound it, my line of reasoning is the best you can do.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
              $endgroup$
              – TheOscillator
              Nov 29 '18 at 12:40










            • $begingroup$
              Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
              $endgroup$
              – Stan Tendijck
              Nov 29 '18 at 15:20
















            1












            $begingroup$

            To address the first question in a bit more detail. In a sense the general approach to this type of questions would be to separate the set $A={n: n=1,2,dots}$ to $B={n: n=1,2,dots,N}$ and $C:={n: n=N+1,N+2,dots}$. Working with the first set is usually easy and for the second set you can use the limit result.



            In more detail, we have $$ A = {|g_{n}(x)|: ninmathbb{N},xin[0,1]} $$
            and then split this one up in the two parts where $n$ is finite and the rest. To be precise, let $epsilon>0$, then because $g_n(x)to f'(x)$ there will exist an $N_{epsilon}inmathbb{N}$ such that $|g_n(x) - f'(x)|leq epsilon$ for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. In particular,
            $$|g_n(x)| leq |f'(x)| + epsilon leq B + epsilon $$
            for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. So this essentially covers up the second part since this implies that
            $$ sup_{ngeq N_{epsilon}}|g_n(x)| leq B + epsilon $$
            Note that we cannot just let $epsilon$ tend to $0$ because in general $N_{epsilon}$ would then converge to infinity.



            For the first part, you should use that $g_n$ is continuous and thus bounded on compact sets such as $[0,1]$. So we could get $|g_n(x)| leq max_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = M_n < infty$ and since we are considering only a finite number of these $n=1,2,dots,N_{epsilon}$ this will still be bounded.
            Indeed,
            $$ sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} M_n = max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon}) < infty. $$



            In the end, you get
            $$ sup_{ninmathbb{N}}sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| leq max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon},B+epsilon). $$
            for any $epsilon$. This is enough if the goal was for example to show that this supremum is bounded (take for example $epsilon=1$ and you'll see that the supremum will be finite. However, as Maliesen pointed out, you cannot expect that this $|g_n(x)| leq B$ but if the goal was to bound it, my line of reasoning is the best you can do.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
              $endgroup$
              – TheOscillator
              Nov 29 '18 at 12:40










            • $begingroup$
              Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
              $endgroup$
              – Stan Tendijck
              Nov 29 '18 at 15:20














            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            To address the first question in a bit more detail. In a sense the general approach to this type of questions would be to separate the set $A={n: n=1,2,dots}$ to $B={n: n=1,2,dots,N}$ and $C:={n: n=N+1,N+2,dots}$. Working with the first set is usually easy and for the second set you can use the limit result.



            In more detail, we have $$ A = {|g_{n}(x)|: ninmathbb{N},xin[0,1]} $$
            and then split this one up in the two parts where $n$ is finite and the rest. To be precise, let $epsilon>0$, then because $g_n(x)to f'(x)$ there will exist an $N_{epsilon}inmathbb{N}$ such that $|g_n(x) - f'(x)|leq epsilon$ for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. In particular,
            $$|g_n(x)| leq |f'(x)| + epsilon leq B + epsilon $$
            for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. So this essentially covers up the second part since this implies that
            $$ sup_{ngeq N_{epsilon}}|g_n(x)| leq B + epsilon $$
            Note that we cannot just let $epsilon$ tend to $0$ because in general $N_{epsilon}$ would then converge to infinity.



            For the first part, you should use that $g_n$ is continuous and thus bounded on compact sets such as $[0,1]$. So we could get $|g_n(x)| leq max_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = M_n < infty$ and since we are considering only a finite number of these $n=1,2,dots,N_{epsilon}$ this will still be bounded.
            Indeed,
            $$ sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} M_n = max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon}) < infty. $$



            In the end, you get
            $$ sup_{ninmathbb{N}}sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| leq max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon},B+epsilon). $$
            for any $epsilon$. This is enough if the goal was for example to show that this supremum is bounded (take for example $epsilon=1$ and you'll see that the supremum will be finite. However, as Maliesen pointed out, you cannot expect that this $|g_n(x)| leq B$ but if the goal was to bound it, my line of reasoning is the best you can do.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            To address the first question in a bit more detail. In a sense the general approach to this type of questions would be to separate the set $A={n: n=1,2,dots}$ to $B={n: n=1,2,dots,N}$ and $C:={n: n=N+1,N+2,dots}$. Working with the first set is usually easy and for the second set you can use the limit result.



            In more detail, we have $$ A = {|g_{n}(x)|: ninmathbb{N},xin[0,1]} $$
            and then split this one up in the two parts where $n$ is finite and the rest. To be precise, let $epsilon>0$, then because $g_n(x)to f'(x)$ there will exist an $N_{epsilon}inmathbb{N}$ such that $|g_n(x) - f'(x)|leq epsilon$ for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. In particular,
            $$|g_n(x)| leq |f'(x)| + epsilon leq B + epsilon $$
            for all $ngeq N_{epsilon}$. So this essentially covers up the second part since this implies that
            $$ sup_{ngeq N_{epsilon}}|g_n(x)| leq B + epsilon $$
            Note that we cannot just let $epsilon$ tend to $0$ because in general $N_{epsilon}$ would then converge to infinity.



            For the first part, you should use that $g_n$ is continuous and thus bounded on compact sets such as $[0,1]$. So we could get $|g_n(x)| leq max_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = M_n < infty$ and since we are considering only a finite number of these $n=1,2,dots,N_{epsilon}$ this will still be bounded.
            Indeed,
            $$ sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| = sup_{nleq N_{epsilon}} M_n = max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon}) < infty. $$



            In the end, you get
            $$ sup_{ninmathbb{N}}sup_{xin[0,1]} |g_n(x)| leq max(M_1,M_2,dots,M_{N_epsilon},B+epsilon). $$
            for any $epsilon$. This is enough if the goal was for example to show that this supremum is bounded (take for example $epsilon=1$ and you'll see that the supremum will be finite. However, as Maliesen pointed out, you cannot expect that this $|g_n(x)| leq B$ but if the goal was to bound it, my line of reasoning is the best you can do.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Nov 29 '18 at 0:48









            Stan TendijckStan Tendijck

            1,411210




            1,411210












            • $begingroup$
              How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
              $endgroup$
              – TheOscillator
              Nov 29 '18 at 12:40










            • $begingroup$
              Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
              $endgroup$
              – Stan Tendijck
              Nov 29 '18 at 15:20


















            • $begingroup$
              How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
              $endgroup$
              – TheOscillator
              Nov 29 '18 at 12:40










            • $begingroup$
              Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
              $endgroup$
              – Stan Tendijck
              Nov 29 '18 at 15:20
















            $begingroup$
            How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
            $endgroup$
            – TheOscillator
            Nov 29 '18 at 12:40




            $begingroup$
            How can you assure that the $N_{varepsilon} $ does not depend on x?
            $endgroup$
            – TheOscillator
            Nov 29 '18 at 12:40












            $begingroup$
            Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
            $endgroup$
            – Stan Tendijck
            Nov 29 '18 at 15:20




            $begingroup$
            Good question. Overlooked the possibility that the convergence $g_nto f'$ is not uniform. I don't have an example at the moment but I believe that if you find an example that doesn't satisfy uniform convergence, you probably have a counter example (not sure).
            $endgroup$
            – Stan Tendijck
            Nov 29 '18 at 15:20


















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