Rudin: Chapter 4, Problem 9. Rephrasing the definition of uniform continuity. Understanding a solution.
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This is from Rudin Chapter 4, problem 9:
Show that the requirement in the definition of uniform continuity can
be rephrased as follows, in terms of diameters of sets: To every $epsilon > 0$
there exists a $delta > 0$ such that diam $f(E)<epsilon$ for all $Esubset X$ with diam $E<delta$.
Here is the solution from Baby Rudin that I'm following:
Suppose $f$ is uniformly continuous on a metric space $X$. By the definition, we know that for any $epsilon >0$, there is $delta>0$ such that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$ for any $x, y in X$ satisfying $d(x, y)<delta$. Thus, for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$,then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$, so that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$. The last inequality implies $text{diam}(f(E))leq frac{epsilon}{2}<epsilon$.
I don't get the last implication. Can smb explain it? Thanks.
real-analysis metric-spaces proof-explanation
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is from Rudin Chapter 4, problem 9:
Show that the requirement in the definition of uniform continuity can
be rephrased as follows, in terms of diameters of sets: To every $epsilon > 0$
there exists a $delta > 0$ such that diam $f(E)<epsilon$ for all $Esubset X$ with diam $E<delta$.
Here is the solution from Baby Rudin that I'm following:
Suppose $f$ is uniformly continuous on a metric space $X$. By the definition, we know that for any $epsilon >0$, there is $delta>0$ such that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$ for any $x, y in X$ satisfying $d(x, y)<delta$. Thus, for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$,then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$, so that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$. The last inequality implies $text{diam}(f(E))leq frac{epsilon}{2}<epsilon$.
I don't get the last implication. Can smb explain it? Thanks.
real-analysis metric-spaces proof-explanation
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This is from Rudin Chapter 4, problem 9:
Show that the requirement in the definition of uniform continuity can
be rephrased as follows, in terms of diameters of sets: To every $epsilon > 0$
there exists a $delta > 0$ such that diam $f(E)<epsilon$ for all $Esubset X$ with diam $E<delta$.
Here is the solution from Baby Rudin that I'm following:
Suppose $f$ is uniformly continuous on a metric space $X$. By the definition, we know that for any $epsilon >0$, there is $delta>0$ such that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$ for any $x, y in X$ satisfying $d(x, y)<delta$. Thus, for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$,then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$, so that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$. The last inequality implies $text{diam}(f(E))leq frac{epsilon}{2}<epsilon$.
I don't get the last implication. Can smb explain it? Thanks.
real-analysis metric-spaces proof-explanation
$endgroup$
This is from Rudin Chapter 4, problem 9:
Show that the requirement in the definition of uniform continuity can
be rephrased as follows, in terms of diameters of sets: To every $epsilon > 0$
there exists a $delta > 0$ such that diam $f(E)<epsilon$ for all $Esubset X$ with diam $E<delta$.
Here is the solution from Baby Rudin that I'm following:
Suppose $f$ is uniformly continuous on a metric space $X$. By the definition, we know that for any $epsilon >0$, there is $delta>0$ such that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$ for any $x, y in X$ satisfying $d(x, y)<delta$. Thus, for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$,then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$, so that $d(f(x), f(y))<frac{epsilon}{2}$. The last inequality implies $text{diam}(f(E))leq frac{epsilon}{2}<epsilon$.
I don't get the last implication. Can smb explain it? Thanks.
real-analysis metric-spaces proof-explanation
real-analysis metric-spaces proof-explanation
edited Nov 29 '18 at 0:41
Shaun
8,832113681
8,832113681
asked Nov 29 '18 at 0:15
dxdydzdxdydz
1869
1869
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I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40
$begingroup$
I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40
$begingroup$
I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
By definition
$$
text{diam} (E)=sup_{x,yin E}d(x,y).
$$
For the proof, $epsilon/2$ is an upper bound of the set ${d(f(x), f(y))mid x,yin E}$. But the supremum is the least upper bound whence
$$
text{diam}(f(E))=sup_{x,y in E}d(f(x),f(y))leq epsilon/2<epsilon
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
By definition
$$
text{diam} (E)=sup_{x,yin E}d(x,y).
$$
For the proof, $epsilon/2$ is an upper bound of the set ${d(f(x), f(y))mid x,yin E}$. But the supremum is the least upper bound whence
$$
text{diam}(f(E))=sup_{x,y in E}d(f(x),f(y))leq epsilon/2<epsilon
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By definition
$$
text{diam} (E)=sup_{x,yin E}d(x,y).
$$
For the proof, $epsilon/2$ is an upper bound of the set ${d(f(x), f(y))mid x,yin E}$. But the supremum is the least upper bound whence
$$
text{diam}(f(E))=sup_{x,y in E}d(f(x),f(y))leq epsilon/2<epsilon
$$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By definition
$$
text{diam} (E)=sup_{x,yin E}d(x,y).
$$
For the proof, $epsilon/2$ is an upper bound of the set ${d(f(x), f(y))mid x,yin E}$. But the supremum is the least upper bound whence
$$
text{diam}(f(E))=sup_{x,y in E}d(f(x),f(y))leq epsilon/2<epsilon
$$
$endgroup$
By definition
$$
text{diam} (E)=sup_{x,yin E}d(x,y).
$$
For the proof, $epsilon/2$ is an upper bound of the set ${d(f(x), f(y))mid x,yin E}$. But the supremum is the least upper bound whence
$$
text{diam}(f(E))=sup_{x,y in E}d(f(x),f(y))leq epsilon/2<epsilon
$$
answered Nov 29 '18 at 0:38
Foobaz JohnFoobaz John
21.6k41352
21.6k41352
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
I would place the emphasis on what comes beforehand (i.e., "for all $E$ with $text{diam}(E)<delta$, if $x, y in E$, then $d(x, y)≤text{diam}(E)<delta$"), especially this bit: "if $x, y in E$, then". I don't know if that helps. Recall the definition of the diameter.
$endgroup$
– Shaun
Nov 29 '18 at 0:40