Switching improper integrals without Fubini
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I'm trying to understand general conditions that permit switching integrals as in
$$int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dx dy = int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dy dx $$
if $f$ is not nonnegative or nonpositive and the integrals $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are improper Riemann integrals that are not absolutely convergent. So Fubini-Tonelli theorem does not apply here.
Is it sufficient that $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are uniformly convergent for $x,y in [0,infty)$? How is it proved if true?
real-analysis
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$begingroup$
I'm trying to understand general conditions that permit switching integrals as in
$$int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dx dy = int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dy dx $$
if $f$ is not nonnegative or nonpositive and the integrals $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are improper Riemann integrals that are not absolutely convergent. So Fubini-Tonelli theorem does not apply here.
Is it sufficient that $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are uniformly convergent for $x,y in [0,infty)$? How is it proved if true?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm trying to understand general conditions that permit switching integrals as in
$$int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dx dy = int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dy dx $$
if $f$ is not nonnegative or nonpositive and the integrals $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are improper Riemann integrals that are not absolutely convergent. So Fubini-Tonelli theorem does not apply here.
Is it sufficient that $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are uniformly convergent for $x,y in [0,infty)$? How is it proved if true?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
I'm trying to understand general conditions that permit switching integrals as in
$$int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dx dy = int_a^infty int_a^infty f(x,y) dy dx $$
if $f$ is not nonnegative or nonpositive and the integrals $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are improper Riemann integrals that are not absolutely convergent. So Fubini-Tonelli theorem does not apply here.
Is it sufficient that $int_a^infty f(x,y)dx, int_a^infty f(x,y)dy$ are uniformly convergent for $x,y in [0,infty)$? How is it proved if true?
real-analysis
real-analysis
asked Nov 30 '18 at 18:08
WoodWorkerWoodWorker
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