Proving inequality of probability












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I need to prove the simple inequality that $P(A<B) geq P(A< c)times P(B > c)$ where both $A$ and $B$ are random variables and $c$ is a constant.



Can someone help ?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I need to prove the simple inequality that $P(A<B) geq P(A< c)times P(B > c)$ where both $A$ and $B$ are random variables and $c$ is a constant.



    Can someone help ?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I need to prove the simple inequality that $P(A<B) geq P(A< c)times P(B > c)$ where both $A$ and $B$ are random variables and $c$ is a constant.



      Can someone help ?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I need to prove the simple inequality that $P(A<B) geq P(A< c)times P(B > c)$ where both $A$ and $B$ are random variables and $c$ is a constant.



      Can someone help ?







      probability probability-theory






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      edited Dec 6 '18 at 3:40









      Andrews

      3901317




      3901317










      asked Dec 6 '18 at 2:02









      vortex_sparrowvortex_sparrow

      11




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          2 Answers
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Not true. Consider $Omega=[0,1]$, $A(omega)=omega$, $B(omega)=omega-frac12$ and $c=frac14$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You mean the inequality does not hold ?
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I do.${}{}$
            $endgroup$
            – Saucy O'Path
            Dec 6 '18 at 16:45



















          0












          $begingroup$

          Are you assuming $A, B$ to be independent? If not, if $A=B$ then $P(A<B)=0$ but $P(A<c),P(B>c)>0$ for for $c$. So, I will assume they are independent, discrete (for simplicity).



          $P(A<B) = sum_i P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ then $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ for any choice of $c$.



          Since $P(A leq i) geq P(A leq c)$ for all $igeq c$,
          $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(Aleq c)
          = P(Bgeq c)P(Aleq c)$
          .



          This is true for all $c$ if $A, B$ are independent. You can produce counterexamples if they are dependent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
            $endgroup$
            – zero
            Dec 7 '18 at 22:26











          Your Answer





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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Not true. Consider $Omega=[0,1]$, $A(omega)=omega$, $B(omega)=omega-frac12$ and $c=frac14$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You mean the inequality does not hold ?
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I do.${}{}$
            $endgroup$
            – Saucy O'Path
            Dec 6 '18 at 16:45
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Not true. Consider $Omega=[0,1]$, $A(omega)=omega$, $B(omega)=omega-frac12$ and $c=frac14$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            You mean the inequality does not hold ?
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I do.${}{}$
            $endgroup$
            – Saucy O'Path
            Dec 6 '18 at 16:45














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Not true. Consider $Omega=[0,1]$, $A(omega)=omega$, $B(omega)=omega-frac12$ and $c=frac14$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Not true. Consider $Omega=[0,1]$, $A(omega)=omega$, $B(omega)=omega-frac12$ and $c=frac14$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 6 '18 at 2:15









          Saucy O'PathSaucy O'Path

          5,9291627




          5,9291627












          • $begingroup$
            You mean the inequality does not hold ?
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I do.${}{}$
            $endgroup$
            – Saucy O'Path
            Dec 6 '18 at 16:45


















          • $begingroup$
            You mean the inequality does not hold ?
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, I do.${}{}$
            $endgroup$
            – Saucy O'Path
            Dec 6 '18 at 16:45
















          $begingroup$
          You mean the inequality does not hold ?
          $endgroup$
          – vortex_sparrow
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:40




          $begingroup$
          You mean the inequality does not hold ?
          $endgroup$
          – vortex_sparrow
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:40












          $begingroup$
          Yes, I do.${}{}$
          $endgroup$
          – Saucy O'Path
          Dec 6 '18 at 16:45




          $begingroup$
          Yes, I do.${}{}$
          $endgroup$
          – Saucy O'Path
          Dec 6 '18 at 16:45











          0












          $begingroup$

          Are you assuming $A, B$ to be independent? If not, if $A=B$ then $P(A<B)=0$ but $P(A<c),P(B>c)>0$ for for $c$. So, I will assume they are independent, discrete (for simplicity).



          $P(A<B) = sum_i P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ then $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ for any choice of $c$.



          Since $P(A leq i) geq P(A leq c)$ for all $igeq c$,
          $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(Aleq c)
          = P(Bgeq c)P(Aleq c)$
          .



          This is true for all $c$ if $A, B$ are independent. You can produce counterexamples if they are dependent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
            $endgroup$
            – zero
            Dec 7 '18 at 22:26
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Are you assuming $A, B$ to be independent? If not, if $A=B$ then $P(A<B)=0$ but $P(A<c),P(B>c)>0$ for for $c$. So, I will assume they are independent, discrete (for simplicity).



          $P(A<B) = sum_i P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ then $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ for any choice of $c$.



          Since $P(A leq i) geq P(A leq c)$ for all $igeq c$,
          $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(Aleq c)
          = P(Bgeq c)P(Aleq c)$
          .



          This is true for all $c$ if $A, B$ are independent. You can produce counterexamples if they are dependent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
            $endgroup$
            – zero
            Dec 7 '18 at 22:26














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Are you assuming $A, B$ to be independent? If not, if $A=B$ then $P(A<B)=0$ but $P(A<c),P(B>c)>0$ for for $c$. So, I will assume they are independent, discrete (for simplicity).



          $P(A<B) = sum_i P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ then $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ for any choice of $c$.



          Since $P(A leq i) geq P(A leq c)$ for all $igeq c$,
          $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(Aleq c)
          = P(Bgeq c)P(Aleq c)$
          .



          This is true for all $c$ if $A, B$ are independent. You can produce counterexamples if they are dependent.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Are you assuming $A, B$ to be independent? If not, if $A=B$ then $P(A<B)=0$ but $P(A<c),P(B>c)>0$ for for $c$. So, I will assume they are independent, discrete (for simplicity).



          $P(A<B) = sum_i P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ then $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) $ for any choice of $c$.



          Since $P(A leq i) geq P(A leq c)$ for all $igeq c$,
          $P(A<B) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(A leq i) geq sum_{igeq c} P(B=i)P(Aleq c)
          = P(Bgeq c)P(Aleq c)$
          .



          This is true for all $c$ if $A, B$ are independent. You can produce counterexamples if they are dependent.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 6 '18 at 2:16









          zerozero

          708




          708












          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
            $endgroup$
            – zero
            Dec 7 '18 at 22:26


















          • $begingroup$
            I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
            $endgroup$
            – vortex_sparrow
            Dec 6 '18 at 4:40










          • $begingroup$
            Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
            $endgroup$
            – zero
            Dec 7 '18 at 22:26
















          $begingroup$
          I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
          $endgroup$
          – vortex_sparrow
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:40




          $begingroup$
          I don't understand why P(A<= i) >= P(A<= c) , since we have no information about c
          $endgroup$
          – vortex_sparrow
          Dec 6 '18 at 4:40












          $begingroup$
          Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
          $endgroup$
          – zero
          Dec 7 '18 at 22:26




          $begingroup$
          Because we are assuming $i geq c$ and ${ A leq c} subset {A leq i }$
          $endgroup$
          – zero
          Dec 7 '18 at 22:26


















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