Convergence with respect to $d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|}$ is equivalent...












2












$begingroup$


This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by



$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$



The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.



As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.




Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?




What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that



$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$



whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.



Any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha Kozachinskiy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:25










  • $begingroup$
    Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31










  • $begingroup$
    @SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
    $endgroup$
    – Tyrone
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    (Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:36
















2












$begingroup$


This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by



$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$



The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.



As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.




Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?




What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that



$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$



whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.



Any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha Kozachinskiy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:25










  • $begingroup$
    Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31










  • $begingroup$
    @SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
    $endgroup$
    – Tyrone
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    (Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:36














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by



$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$



The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.



As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.




Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?




What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that



$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$



whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.



Any help would be greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




This was part of an exercise given to the students in my class last week which I wasn't sure how to do. The question starts by studying the metric $d_1$ defined on $mathbb{R}^infty={x=(x_i)mid iinmathbb{N}}$ given by



$$d_1(x,y)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i-y_i|}{1+|x_i-y_i|},qquad x,yinmathbb{R}^infty.$$



The students are asked to show that this is indeed a metric and compare it with another metric defined on the same space, none of which is difficult. Finally the question asks to show that if $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}subseteqmathbb{R}^infty$ is a sequence, then its convergence to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$ with respect to $d_1$ is equivalent to its pointwise convergence to the same point.



As I understand it, pointwise convergence should mean that for each $iinmathbb{N}$, and each real $epsilon>0$ there exists $N=N(epsilon,i)inmathbb{N}$ such that $|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|<epsilon$ whenever $n>N$.




Now one direction is clear to me, but proving that pointwise convergence implies $d_1$-convergence is not. Can anyone help me out with this direction?




What I need to show is that given any real $delta>0$ there exists $M=M(delta)inmathbb{N}$ such that



$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}{1+|x^{(n)}_i-x_i|}<delta$$



whenever $n>M$, using the assumption of pointwise convergence which I believe to have interpreted correctly just above. The problem seems to be that whilst a suitable $M=M(epsilon,i)$ exists for each $i$, it is by no means clear to me that this collection of $M$s is bounded above.



Any help would be greatly appreciated.







sequences-and-series metric-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 18 '18 at 17:30







Tyrone

















asked Dec 18 '18 at 17:11









TyroneTyrone

5,26711226




5,26711226








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha Kozachinskiy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:25










  • $begingroup$
    Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31










  • $begingroup$
    @SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
    $endgroup$
    – Tyrone
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    (Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
    $endgroup$
    – Sasha Kozachinskiy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:25










  • $begingroup$
    Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31










  • $begingroup$
    @SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
    $endgroup$
    – Tyrone
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:31








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
    $endgroup$
    – Lukas Geyer
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:33










  • $begingroup$
    (Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
    $endgroup$
    – metamorphy
    Dec 18 '18 at 17:36








1




1




$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25




$begingroup$
Is it okay that $d_1$ can be infinite? For example, define $x^{(n)}$ to be a sequence starting with $n$ zeros and then all ones. Its point-wise limit is a sequence consisting only of zeros. But the $d_1$-distance from any $x^{(n)}$ to the limit is infinite
$endgroup$
– Sasha Kozachinskiy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:25












$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31




$begingroup$
Usually the "mimic metric" for pointwise convergence is taken to be $$d(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^{infty}2^{-n}frac{|x_n-y_n|}{1+|x_n-y_n|}.$$
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31












$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31






$begingroup$
@SashaKozachinskiy, sorry about that, and thank you for pointing out the error. I have fixed the correct definition of the metric. Sorry for the confusion. metamorphy, I have corrected the mistake. Than you for pointing it out.
$endgroup$
– Tyrone
Dec 18 '18 at 17:31






1




1




$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33




$begingroup$
The crucial point to observe is that the $n$-th term in the series is always bounded above by $2^{-n}$, so you can make the tail of this series as small as you want, say smaller than $epsilon/2$...
$endgroup$
– Lukas Geyer
Dec 18 '18 at 17:33












$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36




$begingroup$
(Now you don't need the "boundedness" of $M$'s...)
$endgroup$
– metamorphy
Dec 18 '18 at 17:36










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.



We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality



$$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$



is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.



Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that



$$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$



Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.



After a little rearranging we get from this that



$$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$



whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get



$$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$



which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    0












    $begingroup$

    So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.



    We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality



    $$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$



    is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.



    Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that



    $$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$



    Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.



    After a little rearranging we get from this that



    $$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$



    whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get



    $$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$



    which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.



      We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality



      $$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$



      is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.



      Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that



      $$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$



      Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.



      After a little rearranging we get from this that



      $$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$



      whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get



      $$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$



      which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.



        We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality



        $$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$



        is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.



        Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that



        $$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$



        Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.



        After a little rearranging we get from this that



        $$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$



        whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get



        $$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$



        which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        So this is the answer I ended up giving my students. I'll use the notation introduced in the question itself.



        We assume that $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ is a sequence converging pointwise to a point $xinmathbb{R}^infty$. We also assume given a real $delta>0$. Now, since for any $n$, the value $d_1(x^{(n)},x)$ is bounded above by the absolutely convergent series $sum^infty_{n=1}frac{1}{2^n}=1$ we can find for the given sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{n}}$ an integer $K$ such that the inequality



        $$sup_{ninmathbb{N}}left{sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}right}<frac{delta}{2}$$



        is satisfied. Notably $K$ is independent of $n$.



        Now for each $i=1,dots,K$ we use the assumption of pointwise convergence to get integers $N_i$, $i=1,dots,K$, such that



        $$|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|<frac{delta}{frac{2K}{2^i}-delta}.$$



        Note that if necessary we are free to replace $K$ be any larger (but finite) integer so as to guarantee that $frac{2K}{2^i}-deltaneq 0$ for each $i$.



        After a little rearranging we get from this that



        $$sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<sum^K_{i=1}frac{delta}{2K}=Kcdot frac{delta}{2K}=frac{delta}{2}$$



        whenever $n>N:=max_{i}n_i$, and we use this to get



        $$d_1(x^{(n)},x)=sum^infty_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}=sum^K_{i=1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}+sum^infty_{i=K+1}frac{1}{2^i}frac{|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}{1+|x_i^{(n)}-x_i|}<frac{delta}{2}+frac{delta}{2}=delta$$



        which is enough to conclude that the sequence $(x^{(n)})_{ninmathbb{N}}$ converges to $x$ with respect to the metric $d_1$. This is exactly what we needed to show, so we are done.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 6 at 16:10









        TyroneTyrone

        5,26711226




        5,26711226






























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