Everywhere continuous and differentiable $f : mathbb{R} → mathbb{R}$ that is not smooth?












2












$begingroup$


I can't seem to find any counterexamples to the statement "all functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point of the reals are smooth," nor can I find anyone asserting or proving this statement. Are there known functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point (with no holes / discontinuities / bounded domain) but are not smooth, that is, after some number of derivatives the derivative function is no longer fully differentiable?










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New contributor




jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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  • $begingroup$
    Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 15:04










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 15:46










  • $begingroup$
    Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 18:37












  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 25 at 19:03
















2












$begingroup$


I can't seem to find any counterexamples to the statement "all functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point of the reals are smooth," nor can I find anyone asserting or proving this statement. Are there known functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point (with no holes / discontinuities / bounded domain) but are not smooth, that is, after some number of derivatives the derivative function is no longer fully differentiable?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 15:04










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 15:46










  • $begingroup$
    Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 18:37












  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 25 at 19:03














2












2








2





$begingroup$


I can't seem to find any counterexamples to the statement "all functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point of the reals are smooth," nor can I find anyone asserting or proving this statement. Are there known functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point (with no holes / discontinuities / bounded domain) but are not smooth, that is, after some number of derivatives the derivative function is no longer fully differentiable?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$




I can't seem to find any counterexamples to the statement "all functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point of the reals are smooth," nor can I find anyone asserting or proving this statement. Are there known functions that are continuous and differentiable at every point (with no holes / discontinuities / bounded domain) but are not smooth, that is, after some number of derivatives the derivative function is no longer fully differentiable?







real-analysis functions derivatives real-numbers






share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.









share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 24 at 16:54









user21820

39.8k544158




39.8k544158






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Check out our Code of Conduct.









asked Mar 24 at 15:03









jmarvin_jmarvin_

134




134




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New contributor





jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.






jmarvin_ is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.












  • $begingroup$
    Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 15:04










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 15:46










  • $begingroup$
    Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 18:37












  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 25 at 19:03


















  • $begingroup$
    Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 15:04










  • $begingroup$
    What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 15:46










  • $begingroup$
    Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:07










  • $begingroup$
    Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
    $endgroup$
    – Dave L. Renfro
    Mar 24 at 18:37












  • $begingroup$
    Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 25 at 19:03
















$begingroup$
Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 15:04




$begingroup$
Forgot to specify that I am talking about real functions only, if that wasn't clear - complex functions that are discontinuous off the real axis are not interesting counterexamples!
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 15:04












$begingroup$
What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Mar 24 at 15:46




$begingroup$
What do you mean by "smooth" --- continuous derivative or infinitely differentiable (or something else)? FYI, both uses of "smooth" occur quite often here, and nearly always without the questioner saying what "smooth" means until asked.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Mar 24 at 15:46












$begingroup$
Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:07




$begingroup$
Dave: infinitely differentiable was the one I was using, since that's the limit of "smoothness" and thus what I thought was the unequivocal meaning of "smooth" (I specified this in the question at the end - it is "not smooth" if it is no longer totally differentiable after some derivative)
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:07












$begingroup$
Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Mar 24 at 18:37






$begingroup$
Actually, when I saw the part about totally differentiable, I thought you were talking about this, although I did wonder why you used the term in a non-multivariable setting (but not enough to think carefully about what you might have intended, since your question already had several answers). Incidentally, this answer might be of interest.
$endgroup$
– Dave L. Renfro
Mar 24 at 18:37














$begingroup$
Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 25 at 19:03




$begingroup$
Ah, yes, I was using the word "totally" as a non-technical synonym for "completely." My bad - it's been years since I took multivariable calc.
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 25 at 19:03










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

Sure. Take, for instance$$f(x)=begin{cases}x^2&text{ if }xgeqslant0\-x^2&text{ otherwise.}end{cases}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    I'm glad I could help.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 24 at 18:21



















3












$begingroup$

An example is



$$f(x) = begin{cases}0 & text{for } x<0\x^2 & text{for } xgeq 0 end{cases}.$$



It is clear that the function is continuous and differentiable for all $xin mathbb{R}$. But $f'(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – MachineLearner
    Mar 24 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
    $endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Mar 24 at 15:27



















1












$begingroup$

Let $W$ be the continuous, nowhere differentiable Weierstrass function. Then $f(x)=int_0^x W(t),dt$ is continuously differentiable on $mathbb R,$ but $f''(x)$ fails to exist for every $x.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:19












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3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes








3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









3












$begingroup$

Sure. Take, for instance$$f(x)=begin{cases}x^2&text{ if }xgeqslant0\-x^2&text{ otherwise.}end{cases}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    I'm glad I could help.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 24 at 18:21
















3












$begingroup$

Sure. Take, for instance$$f(x)=begin{cases}x^2&text{ if }xgeqslant0\-x^2&text{ otherwise.}end{cases}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    I'm glad I could help.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 24 at 18:21














3












3








3





$begingroup$

Sure. Take, for instance$$f(x)=begin{cases}x^2&text{ if }xgeqslant0\-x^2&text{ otherwise.}end{cases}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Sure. Take, for instance$$f(x)=begin{cases}x^2&text{ if }xgeqslant0\-x^2&text{ otherwise.}end{cases}$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 24 at 15:06









José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos

171k23132240




171k23132240












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    I'm glad I could help.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 24 at 18:21


















  • $begingroup$
    Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:18










  • $begingroup$
    I'm glad I could help.
    $endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Mar 24 at 18:21
















$begingroup$
Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:18




$begingroup$
Thanks - I wasn't thinking about just composing a piecewise function like this.
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:18












$begingroup$
I'm glad I could help.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 24 at 18:21




$begingroup$
I'm glad I could help.
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Mar 24 at 18:21











3












$begingroup$

An example is



$$f(x) = begin{cases}0 & text{for } x<0\x^2 & text{for } xgeq 0 end{cases}.$$



It is clear that the function is continuous and differentiable for all $xin mathbb{R}$. But $f'(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – MachineLearner
    Mar 24 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
    $endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Mar 24 at 15:27
















3












$begingroup$

An example is



$$f(x) = begin{cases}0 & text{for } x<0\x^2 & text{for } xgeq 0 end{cases}.$$



It is clear that the function is continuous and differentiable for all $xin mathbb{R}$. But $f'(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – MachineLearner
    Mar 24 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
    $endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Mar 24 at 15:27














3












3








3





$begingroup$

An example is



$$f(x) = begin{cases}0 & text{for } x<0\x^2 & text{for } xgeq 0 end{cases}.$$



It is clear that the function is continuous and differentiable for all $xin mathbb{R}$. But $f'(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



An example is



$$f(x) = begin{cases}0 & text{for } x<0\x^2 & text{for } xgeq 0 end{cases}.$$



It is clear that the function is continuous and differentiable for all $xin mathbb{R}$. But $f'(x)$ is not differentiable at $x=0$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 24 at 15:05









MachineLearnerMachineLearner

1,319112




1,319112












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – MachineLearner
    Mar 24 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
    $endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Mar 24 at 15:27


















  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
    $endgroup$
    – MachineLearner
    Mar 24 at 15:27












  • $begingroup$
    @TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
    $endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Mar 24 at 15:27
















$begingroup$
@TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
$endgroup$
– MachineLearner
Mar 24 at 15:27






$begingroup$
@TomislavOstojich I think you didn't notice the prime. I said that $f(x)$ differentiable. And $f'(x)$ (the derivative of f(x)$ is not differentiable.
$endgroup$
– MachineLearner
Mar 24 at 15:27














$begingroup$
@TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
$endgroup$
– coffeemath
Mar 24 at 15:27




$begingroup$
@TomislavOstojich No contradiction.. $f$ differentiable always, but $f'$ (not $f$) isn't always.
$endgroup$
– coffeemath
Mar 24 at 15:27











1












$begingroup$

Let $W$ be the continuous, nowhere differentiable Weierstrass function. Then $f(x)=int_0^x W(t),dt$ is continuously differentiable on $mathbb R,$ but $f''(x)$ fails to exist for every $x.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:19
















1












$begingroup$

Let $W$ be the continuous, nowhere differentiable Weierstrass function. Then $f(x)=int_0^x W(t),dt$ is continuously differentiable on $mathbb R,$ but $f''(x)$ fails to exist for every $x.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:19














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Let $W$ be the continuous, nowhere differentiable Weierstrass function. Then $f(x)=int_0^x W(t),dt$ is continuously differentiable on $mathbb R,$ but $f''(x)$ fails to exist for every $x.$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Let $W$ be the continuous, nowhere differentiable Weierstrass function. Then $f(x)=int_0^x W(t),dt$ is continuously differentiable on $mathbb R,$ but $f''(x)$ fails to exist for every $x.$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Mar 24 at 17:00









zhw.zhw.

74.8k43175




74.8k43175












  • $begingroup$
    This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:19


















  • $begingroup$
    This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – jmarvin_
    Mar 24 at 18:19
















$begingroup$
This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:19




$begingroup$
This is an interesting answer, probably the most extreme one easily available. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– jmarvin_
Mar 24 at 18:19










jmarvin_ is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










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