the reason behind dual the inner problem in robust optimization












0












$begingroup$


I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.



for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$



where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$



and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$



and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem



which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$



and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$



My question is



1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?



2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?










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  • $begingroup$
    did you appreciate my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Jan 5 at 16:12
















0












$begingroup$


I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.



for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$



where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$



and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$



and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem



which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$



and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$



My question is



1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?



2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    did you appreciate my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Jan 5 at 16:12














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.



for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$



where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$



and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$



and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem



which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$



and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$



My question is



1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?



2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.



for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$



where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$



and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$



and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem



which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$



and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$



My question is



1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?



2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?







optimization convex-optimization






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 18 '18 at 17:03









Vergil ChanVergil Chan

354




354












  • $begingroup$
    did you appreciate my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Jan 5 at 16:12


















  • $begingroup$
    did you appreciate my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Jan 5 at 16:12
















$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12




$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$


  1. We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.


  2. If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:14










  • $begingroup$
    and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:20










  • $begingroup$
    @VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 19 '18 at 14:45












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

oldest

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oldest

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active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$


  1. We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.


  2. If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:14










  • $begingroup$
    and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:20










  • $begingroup$
    @VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
















1












$begingroup$


  1. We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.


  2. If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:14










  • $begingroup$
    and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:20










  • $begingroup$
    @VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 19 '18 at 14:45














1












1








1





$begingroup$


  1. We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.


  2. If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.







share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$




  1. We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.


  2. If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.








share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 18 '18 at 17:42









LinAlgLinAlg

10.1k1521




10.1k1521












  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:14










  • $begingroup$
    and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:20










  • $begingroup$
    @VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 19 '18 at 14:45


















  • $begingroup$
    thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:14










  • $begingroup$
    and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
    $endgroup$
    – Vergil Chan
    Dec 19 '18 at 3:20










  • $begingroup$
    @VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
    $endgroup$
    – LinAlg
    Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
















$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14




$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14












$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20




$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20












$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45




$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45


















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