the reason behind dual the inner problem in robust optimization
$begingroup$
I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.
for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$
where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$
and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$
and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem
which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$
and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$
My question is
1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?
2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?
optimization convex-optimization
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.
for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$
where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$
and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$
and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem
which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$
and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$
My question is
1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?
2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?
optimization convex-optimization
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.
for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$
where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$
and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$
and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem
which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$
and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$
My question is
1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?
2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?
optimization convex-optimization
$endgroup$
I have reading some material about Robust optimization.
It seems that dual optimization theory is the main techniques to reformulate robust optimization.
for example:
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad a^Txleq b$$
where$$qquad ain {a|Daleq d} $$
and the problem is equivalent
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad max_{Daleq d}a^Txleq b$$
and they use dual theory reformulate the max problem to min problem
which is
$$min_xqquad c^Tx$$
$$s.tqquad min_{D^Tp=x,pgeq0}p^Tdleq b$$
and finally it equivalent to $$min_{x,p}qquad c^Tx$$
$s.t$
$$p^Tdleq b$$
$$D^Tp=x$$
$$pgeq0$$
My question is
1.why we use dual theory to reformulate the inner problem?
2.why we can omit the second minimize in constraints?
optimization convex-optimization
optimization convex-optimization
asked Dec 18 '18 at 17:03
Vergil ChanVergil Chan
354
354
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did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12
add a comment |
$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12
$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12
$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.
If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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active
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1 Answer
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active
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$begingroup$
We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.
If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.
If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.
If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.
$endgroup$
We use duality theory because we can do 'step 2'. It is a technique to turn a problem with uncountable many constraints into something manageable.
If you can find one $p geq 0$ for which $D^Tp = x$ and $p^T d leq b$, that is already sufficient to conclude that the minimum over $pgeq 0$ for which $D^Tp=x$ is less than or equal to $b$.
answered Dec 18 '18 at 17:42
LinAlgLinAlg
10.1k1521
10.1k1521
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
add a comment |
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
thanks for your reply,but I still have confusion here. 1.as you mentioned,I know the problem have infinite constraints,but I don't know what happen to those infinite constraints, when we dualize the inner problem,can you give me some detail illustrated?
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:14
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
and for the question 2,why is already sufficient to conclude..... is that any theorem or prove to illustrate this thing? i.e KKT condition or something ele? thank you!
$endgroup$
– Vergil Chan
Dec 19 '18 at 3:20
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
$begingroup$
@VergilChan the infinite constraints went into a modest number of constraints. It is clear that the final formulation is just a regular linear optimization problem. It is sufficient to conclude from the definition of the minimum: the minimum of a set is not larger than any element of a set.
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Dec 19 '18 at 14:45
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
did you appreciate my answer?
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 5 at 16:12