Projection is an open map
$begingroup$
Let $X$ and $Y$ be (any) topological spaces. Show that the projection
$pi_1$ : $Xtimes Yto X$
is an open map.
general-topology
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X$ and $Y$ be (any) topological spaces. Show that the projection
$pi_1$ : $Xtimes Yto X$
is an open map.
general-topology
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
$endgroup$
– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
4
$begingroup$
ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $X$ and $Y$ be (any) topological spaces. Show that the projection
$pi_1$ : $Xtimes Yto X$
is an open map.
general-topology
$endgroup$
Let $X$ and $Y$ be (any) topological spaces. Show that the projection
$pi_1$ : $Xtimes Yto X$
is an open map.
general-topology
general-topology
edited Apr 11 '13 at 8:23
Stefan Hamcke
21.8k42879
21.8k42879
asked Nov 29 '12 at 20:25
AlishaAlisha
170123
170123
3
$begingroup$
How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
$endgroup$
– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
4
$begingroup$
ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
$endgroup$
– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
4
$begingroup$
ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24
3
3
$begingroup$
How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
$endgroup$
– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
$begingroup$
How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
$endgroup$
– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
4
4
$begingroup$
ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24
$begingroup$
ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
$endgroup$
– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $Usubseteq Xtimes Y$ be open. Then, by definition of the product topology, $U$ is a union of finite intersections of sets of the form $pi_X^{-1}(V)=Vtimes Y$ and $pi_Y^{-1}(W)=Xtimes W$ for $Vsubseteq X$ and $Wsubseteq Y$ open. This means (in this case) that we may without loss of generality assume $U=Vtimes W$. Now, clearly, $pi_X(U)=V$ is open.
Edit I will explain why I assume $U=Vtimes W$. In general, we know that $U=bigcup_{iin I} bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}$ with $I$ possibly infinite, each $J_i$ a finite set and $V_{ij}subseteq X$ as well as $W_{ij}subseteq Y$ open. Note that we have
begin{align*}
(V_1times W_1)cap (V_2times W_2) &= { (v,w) mid vin V_1, vin V_2, win W_1, win W_2 } \&= (V_1cap V_2)times (W_1cap W_2)
end{align*}
and this generalizes to arbitrary finite intersections. Now, we have
begin{align*}
pi_X(U)&=pi_Xleft(bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}right)
=bigcup_{iin I}~ pi_Xleft(left(bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}right)times left(bigcap_{jin J_i} W_{ij}right)right)
= bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij} =: V
end{align*}
and $Vsubseteq X$ is open, because it is a union of finite intersection of open sets. Note for the first equality also that forming the image under any map commutes with unions.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Some similar approach is the following: Let $pi_1 :X times Y to X$ be the projection and assume $U subset X times Y$ is open.
We must show that $pi_1(U)$ is open. For this let $x_0 in pi(U)$. Then $x_0 = pi(a_0,b_0)$ for some pair $(a_0,b_0) in U$. Since $(a_0,b_0) in U$ we can find two opens $a_0 in R$ and $b_0 in S$ with $R times S subset U$. That means $R subset pi_1(U)$ and we have $x_0 in R$.
Now, $pi_1(U)$ is a union of opens.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was working through this same problem and would like to share my solution since there are some issues with the other answer (and it wasn't accepted). Please feel free to point out any flaws, of course.
Let $U$ be an open set in $Xtimes Y$. Then $U$ is a union of finite intersections of elements of
$$ mathcal S = left{pi_1^{-1}(A) : Atext{ open in } Xright} cup left{pi_2^{-1}(B) : B text{ open in } Yright},$$
that is,
$$ U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_alpha} S_{alpha, i} $$
where each $J_alpha$ is finite and each $S_{alpha, i}$ is in $mathcal S$. We can write each $S_{alpha,i}=pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})$, where each $V_{alpha, i}$ is open in $X$ and each $W_{alpha,i}$ is open in $Y$ (allowing for the possibility that $V_{alpha,i}=X$ or $W_{alpha,i}=Y$). As $$ pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})=V_{alpha,i}times Y text{ and } pi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})=Xtimes W_{alpha,i}$$
it follows that
$$pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i}) = (V_{alpha,i}times Y)cap (Xtimes W_{alpha,i}) = V_{alpha,i}times W_{alpha,i}.$$
Letting $V_alpha=bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}$ and $W_alpha = bigcap_{iin J_i}W_{alpha,i}$, we have
$$U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}cap W_{alpha,i} = bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes W_alpha,$$
where each $V_alpha$ is open in $X$ and each $W_alpha$ is open in $Y$. It follows that
$$ pi_1(U) = pi_1left(bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes Walpha right) = bigcup_{alphain I}pi_1(V_alphatimes W_alpha) = bigcup_{alphain I'}V_alpha $$
(where $I' = {alpha in I : W_alphanevarnothing}$) is open in $X$. We conclude that $pi_1$ is an open map.
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Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
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– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
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@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
add a comment |
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3 Answers
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active
oldest
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Let $Usubseteq Xtimes Y$ be open. Then, by definition of the product topology, $U$ is a union of finite intersections of sets of the form $pi_X^{-1}(V)=Vtimes Y$ and $pi_Y^{-1}(W)=Xtimes W$ for $Vsubseteq X$ and $Wsubseteq Y$ open. This means (in this case) that we may without loss of generality assume $U=Vtimes W$. Now, clearly, $pi_X(U)=V$ is open.
Edit I will explain why I assume $U=Vtimes W$. In general, we know that $U=bigcup_{iin I} bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}$ with $I$ possibly infinite, each $J_i$ a finite set and $V_{ij}subseteq X$ as well as $W_{ij}subseteq Y$ open. Note that we have
begin{align*}
(V_1times W_1)cap (V_2times W_2) &= { (v,w) mid vin V_1, vin V_2, win W_1, win W_2 } \&= (V_1cap V_2)times (W_1cap W_2)
end{align*}
and this generalizes to arbitrary finite intersections. Now, we have
begin{align*}
pi_X(U)&=pi_Xleft(bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}right)
=bigcup_{iin I}~ pi_Xleft(left(bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}right)times left(bigcap_{jin J_i} W_{ij}right)right)
= bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij} =: V
end{align*}
and $Vsubseteq X$ is open, because it is a union of finite intersection of open sets. Note for the first equality also that forming the image under any map commutes with unions.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $Usubseteq Xtimes Y$ be open. Then, by definition of the product topology, $U$ is a union of finite intersections of sets of the form $pi_X^{-1}(V)=Vtimes Y$ and $pi_Y^{-1}(W)=Xtimes W$ for $Vsubseteq X$ and $Wsubseteq Y$ open. This means (in this case) that we may without loss of generality assume $U=Vtimes W$. Now, clearly, $pi_X(U)=V$ is open.
Edit I will explain why I assume $U=Vtimes W$. In general, we know that $U=bigcup_{iin I} bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}$ with $I$ possibly infinite, each $J_i$ a finite set and $V_{ij}subseteq X$ as well as $W_{ij}subseteq Y$ open. Note that we have
begin{align*}
(V_1times W_1)cap (V_2times W_2) &= { (v,w) mid vin V_1, vin V_2, win W_1, win W_2 } \&= (V_1cap V_2)times (W_1cap W_2)
end{align*}
and this generalizes to arbitrary finite intersections. Now, we have
begin{align*}
pi_X(U)&=pi_Xleft(bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}right)
=bigcup_{iin I}~ pi_Xleft(left(bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}right)times left(bigcap_{jin J_i} W_{ij}right)right)
= bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij} =: V
end{align*}
and $Vsubseteq X$ is open, because it is a union of finite intersection of open sets. Note for the first equality also that forming the image under any map commutes with unions.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $Usubseteq Xtimes Y$ be open. Then, by definition of the product topology, $U$ is a union of finite intersections of sets of the form $pi_X^{-1}(V)=Vtimes Y$ and $pi_Y^{-1}(W)=Xtimes W$ for $Vsubseteq X$ and $Wsubseteq Y$ open. This means (in this case) that we may without loss of generality assume $U=Vtimes W$. Now, clearly, $pi_X(U)=V$ is open.
Edit I will explain why I assume $U=Vtimes W$. In general, we know that $U=bigcup_{iin I} bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}$ with $I$ possibly infinite, each $J_i$ a finite set and $V_{ij}subseteq X$ as well as $W_{ij}subseteq Y$ open. Note that we have
begin{align*}
(V_1times W_1)cap (V_2times W_2) &= { (v,w) mid vin V_1, vin V_2, win W_1, win W_2 } \&= (V_1cap V_2)times (W_1cap W_2)
end{align*}
and this generalizes to arbitrary finite intersections. Now, we have
begin{align*}
pi_X(U)&=pi_Xleft(bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}right)
=bigcup_{iin I}~ pi_Xleft(left(bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}right)times left(bigcap_{jin J_i} W_{ij}right)right)
= bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij} =: V
end{align*}
and $Vsubseteq X$ is open, because it is a union of finite intersection of open sets. Note for the first equality also that forming the image under any map commutes with unions.
$endgroup$
Let $Usubseteq Xtimes Y$ be open. Then, by definition of the product topology, $U$ is a union of finite intersections of sets of the form $pi_X^{-1}(V)=Vtimes Y$ and $pi_Y^{-1}(W)=Xtimes W$ for $Vsubseteq X$ and $Wsubseteq Y$ open. This means (in this case) that we may without loss of generality assume $U=Vtimes W$. Now, clearly, $pi_X(U)=V$ is open.
Edit I will explain why I assume $U=Vtimes W$. In general, we know that $U=bigcup_{iin I} bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}$ with $I$ possibly infinite, each $J_i$ a finite set and $V_{ij}subseteq X$ as well as $W_{ij}subseteq Y$ open. Note that we have
begin{align*}
(V_1times W_1)cap (V_2times W_2) &= { (v,w) mid vin V_1, vin V_2, win W_1, win W_2 } \&= (V_1cap V_2)times (W_1cap W_2)
end{align*}
and this generalizes to arbitrary finite intersections. Now, we have
begin{align*}
pi_X(U)&=pi_Xleft(bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}times W_{ij}right)
=bigcup_{iin I}~ pi_Xleft(left(bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij}right)times left(bigcap_{jin J_i} W_{ij}right)right)
= bigcup_{iin I}~ bigcap_{jin J_i} V_{ij} =: V
end{align*}
and $Vsubseteq X$ is open, because it is a union of finite intersection of open sets. Note for the first equality also that forming the image under any map commutes with unions.
edited Jul 5 '15 at 20:28
answered Nov 29 '12 at 20:39
Jesko HüttenhainJesko Hüttenhain
10.5k12357
10.5k12357
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
Hi Jesko, nice answer, thanks. It is very helpful for a question I just asked.
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:05
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
$begingroup$
But I couldn't follow the very last step - would you please tell me why we can assume $U = V times W$ given the previous construction? Thank you~
$endgroup$
– WishingFish
Jul 5 '13 at 6:08
1
1
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
$begingroup$
@WishingFish: See my edit. Hope this helps!
$endgroup$
– Jesko Hüttenhain
Jul 5 '13 at 10:58
1
1
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
If $V_{ij}$ and $W_{ij}$ are arbitrary open, you don't need any intersections... (Intersection of rectangles is a rectangle.) And forming an image does not commute with intersections.
$endgroup$
– tomasz
Jul 5 '13 at 11:02
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
$begingroup$
Also, $pi_X(V_{ij} times W_{ij})$ equals $V_{ij}$ (in general) only in the case that $W_{ij}$ is inhabited. Else it is empty.
$endgroup$
– Ingo Blechschmidt
May 22 '14 at 21:03
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Some similar approach is the following: Let $pi_1 :X times Y to X$ be the projection and assume $U subset X times Y$ is open.
We must show that $pi_1(U)$ is open. For this let $x_0 in pi(U)$. Then $x_0 = pi(a_0,b_0)$ for some pair $(a_0,b_0) in U$. Since $(a_0,b_0) in U$ we can find two opens $a_0 in R$ and $b_0 in S$ with $R times S subset U$. That means $R subset pi_1(U)$ and we have $x_0 in R$.
Now, $pi_1(U)$ is a union of opens.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some similar approach is the following: Let $pi_1 :X times Y to X$ be the projection and assume $U subset X times Y$ is open.
We must show that $pi_1(U)$ is open. For this let $x_0 in pi(U)$. Then $x_0 = pi(a_0,b_0)$ for some pair $(a_0,b_0) in U$. Since $(a_0,b_0) in U$ we can find two opens $a_0 in R$ and $b_0 in S$ with $R times S subset U$. That means $R subset pi_1(U)$ and we have $x_0 in R$.
Now, $pi_1(U)$ is a union of opens.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Some similar approach is the following: Let $pi_1 :X times Y to X$ be the projection and assume $U subset X times Y$ is open.
We must show that $pi_1(U)$ is open. For this let $x_0 in pi(U)$. Then $x_0 = pi(a_0,b_0)$ for some pair $(a_0,b_0) in U$. Since $(a_0,b_0) in U$ we can find two opens $a_0 in R$ and $b_0 in S$ with $R times S subset U$. That means $R subset pi_1(U)$ and we have $x_0 in R$.
Now, $pi_1(U)$ is a union of opens.
$endgroup$
Some similar approach is the following: Let $pi_1 :X times Y to X$ be the projection and assume $U subset X times Y$ is open.
We must show that $pi_1(U)$ is open. For this let $x_0 in pi(U)$. Then $x_0 = pi(a_0,b_0)$ for some pair $(a_0,b_0) in U$. Since $(a_0,b_0) in U$ we can find two opens $a_0 in R$ and $b_0 in S$ with $R times S subset U$. That means $R subset pi_1(U)$ and we have $x_0 in R$.
Now, $pi_1(U)$ is a union of opens.
answered Oct 25 '14 at 17:37
user42761
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was working through this same problem and would like to share my solution since there are some issues with the other answer (and it wasn't accepted). Please feel free to point out any flaws, of course.
Let $U$ be an open set in $Xtimes Y$. Then $U$ is a union of finite intersections of elements of
$$ mathcal S = left{pi_1^{-1}(A) : Atext{ open in } Xright} cup left{pi_2^{-1}(B) : B text{ open in } Yright},$$
that is,
$$ U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_alpha} S_{alpha, i} $$
where each $J_alpha$ is finite and each $S_{alpha, i}$ is in $mathcal S$. We can write each $S_{alpha,i}=pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})$, where each $V_{alpha, i}$ is open in $X$ and each $W_{alpha,i}$ is open in $Y$ (allowing for the possibility that $V_{alpha,i}=X$ or $W_{alpha,i}=Y$). As $$ pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})=V_{alpha,i}times Y text{ and } pi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})=Xtimes W_{alpha,i}$$
it follows that
$$pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i}) = (V_{alpha,i}times Y)cap (Xtimes W_{alpha,i}) = V_{alpha,i}times W_{alpha,i}.$$
Letting $V_alpha=bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}$ and $W_alpha = bigcap_{iin J_i}W_{alpha,i}$, we have
$$U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}cap W_{alpha,i} = bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes W_alpha,$$
where each $V_alpha$ is open in $X$ and each $W_alpha$ is open in $Y$. It follows that
$$ pi_1(U) = pi_1left(bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes Walpha right) = bigcup_{alphain I}pi_1(V_alphatimes W_alpha) = bigcup_{alphain I'}V_alpha $$
(where $I' = {alpha in I : W_alphanevarnothing}$) is open in $X$. We conclude that $pi_1$ is an open map.
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Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
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– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
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@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
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– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
add a comment |
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I was working through this same problem and would like to share my solution since there are some issues with the other answer (and it wasn't accepted). Please feel free to point out any flaws, of course.
Let $U$ be an open set in $Xtimes Y$. Then $U$ is a union of finite intersections of elements of
$$ mathcal S = left{pi_1^{-1}(A) : Atext{ open in } Xright} cup left{pi_2^{-1}(B) : B text{ open in } Yright},$$
that is,
$$ U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_alpha} S_{alpha, i} $$
where each $J_alpha$ is finite and each $S_{alpha, i}$ is in $mathcal S$. We can write each $S_{alpha,i}=pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})$, where each $V_{alpha, i}$ is open in $X$ and each $W_{alpha,i}$ is open in $Y$ (allowing for the possibility that $V_{alpha,i}=X$ or $W_{alpha,i}=Y$). As $$ pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})=V_{alpha,i}times Y text{ and } pi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})=Xtimes W_{alpha,i}$$
it follows that
$$pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i}) = (V_{alpha,i}times Y)cap (Xtimes W_{alpha,i}) = V_{alpha,i}times W_{alpha,i}.$$
Letting $V_alpha=bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}$ and $W_alpha = bigcap_{iin J_i}W_{alpha,i}$, we have
$$U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}cap W_{alpha,i} = bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes W_alpha,$$
where each $V_alpha$ is open in $X$ and each $W_alpha$ is open in $Y$. It follows that
$$ pi_1(U) = pi_1left(bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes Walpha right) = bigcup_{alphain I}pi_1(V_alphatimes W_alpha) = bigcup_{alphain I'}V_alpha $$
(where $I' = {alpha in I : W_alphanevarnothing}$) is open in $X$. We conclude that $pi_1$ is an open map.
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Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
$endgroup$
– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
$begingroup$
@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was working through this same problem and would like to share my solution since there are some issues with the other answer (and it wasn't accepted). Please feel free to point out any flaws, of course.
Let $U$ be an open set in $Xtimes Y$. Then $U$ is a union of finite intersections of elements of
$$ mathcal S = left{pi_1^{-1}(A) : Atext{ open in } Xright} cup left{pi_2^{-1}(B) : B text{ open in } Yright},$$
that is,
$$ U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_alpha} S_{alpha, i} $$
where each $J_alpha$ is finite and each $S_{alpha, i}$ is in $mathcal S$. We can write each $S_{alpha,i}=pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})$, where each $V_{alpha, i}$ is open in $X$ and each $W_{alpha,i}$ is open in $Y$ (allowing for the possibility that $V_{alpha,i}=X$ or $W_{alpha,i}=Y$). As $$ pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})=V_{alpha,i}times Y text{ and } pi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})=Xtimes W_{alpha,i}$$
it follows that
$$pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i}) = (V_{alpha,i}times Y)cap (Xtimes W_{alpha,i}) = V_{alpha,i}times W_{alpha,i}.$$
Letting $V_alpha=bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}$ and $W_alpha = bigcap_{iin J_i}W_{alpha,i}$, we have
$$U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}cap W_{alpha,i} = bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes W_alpha,$$
where each $V_alpha$ is open in $X$ and each $W_alpha$ is open in $Y$. It follows that
$$ pi_1(U) = pi_1left(bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes Walpha right) = bigcup_{alphain I}pi_1(V_alphatimes W_alpha) = bigcup_{alphain I'}V_alpha $$
(where $I' = {alpha in I : W_alphanevarnothing}$) is open in $X$. We conclude that $pi_1$ is an open map.
$endgroup$
I was working through this same problem and would like to share my solution since there are some issues with the other answer (and it wasn't accepted). Please feel free to point out any flaws, of course.
Let $U$ be an open set in $Xtimes Y$. Then $U$ is a union of finite intersections of elements of
$$ mathcal S = left{pi_1^{-1}(A) : Atext{ open in } Xright} cup left{pi_2^{-1}(B) : B text{ open in } Yright},$$
that is,
$$ U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_alpha} S_{alpha, i} $$
where each $J_alpha$ is finite and each $S_{alpha, i}$ is in $mathcal S$. We can write each $S_{alpha,i}=pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})$, where each $V_{alpha, i}$ is open in $X$ and each $W_{alpha,i}$ is open in $Y$ (allowing for the possibility that $V_{alpha,i}=X$ or $W_{alpha,i}=Y$). As $$ pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})=V_{alpha,i}times Y text{ and } pi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i})=Xtimes W_{alpha,i}$$
it follows that
$$pi_1^{-1}(V_{alpha,i})cappi_2^{-1}(W_{alpha,i}) = (V_{alpha,i}times Y)cap (Xtimes W_{alpha,i}) = V_{alpha,i}times W_{alpha,i}.$$
Letting $V_alpha=bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}$ and $W_alpha = bigcap_{iin J_i}W_{alpha,i}$, we have
$$U = bigcup_{alphain I}bigcap_{iin J_i} V_{alpha,i}cap W_{alpha,i} = bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes W_alpha,$$
where each $V_alpha$ is open in $X$ and each $W_alpha$ is open in $Y$. It follows that
$$ pi_1(U) = pi_1left(bigcup_{alphain I}V_alphatimes Walpha right) = bigcup_{alphain I}pi_1(V_alphatimes W_alpha) = bigcup_{alphain I'}V_alpha $$
(where $I' = {alpha in I : W_alphanevarnothing}$) is open in $X$. We conclude that $pi_1$ is an open map.
edited Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
answered Oct 17 '14 at 23:53
Math1000Math1000
19.2k31745
19.2k31745
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Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
$endgroup$
– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
$begingroup$
@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
$endgroup$
– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
$begingroup$
@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
$begingroup$
Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
$endgroup$
– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
$begingroup$
Do you mean to say $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{alpha}}$$ and not $$U=cup_{alpha in I} cap_{i in J_{i}}$$?
$endgroup$
– Kam
Dec 12 '18 at 11:10
$begingroup$
@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
$begingroup$
@Kam That appears to have been a typo, thanks.
$endgroup$
– Math1000
Dec 13 '18 at 14:58
add a comment |
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How do you define the topology on $Xtimes Y$?
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– Lior B-S
Nov 29 '12 at 20:29
4
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ProofWiki: Projection from Product Topology is Open
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– Martin Sleziak
Apr 11 '13 at 8:24