Show Circle Group $ mathbb{T} $ isomorphic to $mathbb { C } ^ { * } / mathbb { R } ^ { * } $












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I'm trying to think of an extension to this question, which asks to show whether $mathbb { C } ^ { * } / mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq mathbb { T } $. They do it using the First Isomorphism Theorem.



I think my postulate should be true because $ mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq { R } ^ { * } $, (the positive reals under multiplication and the reals under multiplication ), but I'm having difficulty coming up with a homomorphism



$$ phi : mathbb { C } ^ { * } mapsto mathbb{T} $$



Any suggestions?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    I'm trying to think of an extension to this question, which asks to show whether $mathbb { C } ^ { * } / mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq mathbb { T } $. They do it using the First Isomorphism Theorem.



    I think my postulate should be true because $ mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq { R } ^ { * } $, (the positive reals under multiplication and the reals under multiplication ), but I'm having difficulty coming up with a homomorphism



    $$ phi : mathbb { C } ^ { * } mapsto mathbb{T} $$



    Any suggestions?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I'm trying to think of an extension to this question, which asks to show whether $mathbb { C } ^ { * } / mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq mathbb { T } $. They do it using the First Isomorphism Theorem.



      I think my postulate should be true because $ mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq { R } ^ { * } $, (the positive reals under multiplication and the reals under multiplication ), but I'm having difficulty coming up with a homomorphism



      $$ phi : mathbb { C } ^ { * } mapsto mathbb{T} $$



      Any suggestions?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I'm trying to think of an extension to this question, which asks to show whether $mathbb { C } ^ { * } / mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq mathbb { T } $. They do it using the First Isomorphism Theorem.



      I think my postulate should be true because $ mathbb { R } ^ { + } simeq { R } ^ { * } $, (the positive reals under multiplication and the reals under multiplication ), but I'm having difficulty coming up with a homomorphism



      $$ phi : mathbb { C } ^ { * } mapsto mathbb{T} $$



      Any suggestions?







      abstract-algebra group-theory infinite-groups






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      asked Dec 2 '18 at 15:58









      Andrew HardyAndrew Hardy

      125




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          $begingroup$

          Just use the same homomorphism, and then double the angle. Dividing by negatives means that we identify numbers on opposite sides of the origin. Double the angle, and that's not a problem anymore. After all, we can map the circle 2-1 to the circle.



          (Or, as Tsemo Aristide's answer put it, going from the projective line to the circle is an angle-doubling)






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















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            $begingroup$

            $mathbb{R}^*$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb{R}^+$ as topological groups because the first set is not connected and the second is connected. But the quotient of $mathbb{C}^*$ by $mathbb{R}^*$ is the projective line which is the circle.






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              2 Answers
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              2 Answers
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              0












              $begingroup$

              Just use the same homomorphism, and then double the angle. Dividing by negatives means that we identify numbers on opposite sides of the origin. Double the angle, and that's not a problem anymore. After all, we can map the circle 2-1 to the circle.



              (Or, as Tsemo Aristide's answer put it, going from the projective line to the circle is an angle-doubling)






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                0












                $begingroup$

                Just use the same homomorphism, and then double the angle. Dividing by negatives means that we identify numbers on opposite sides of the origin. Double the angle, and that's not a problem anymore. After all, we can map the circle 2-1 to the circle.



                (Or, as Tsemo Aristide's answer put it, going from the projective line to the circle is an angle-doubling)






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  0












                  0








                  0





                  $begingroup$

                  Just use the same homomorphism, and then double the angle. Dividing by negatives means that we identify numbers on opposite sides of the origin. Double the angle, and that's not a problem anymore. After all, we can map the circle 2-1 to the circle.



                  (Or, as Tsemo Aristide's answer put it, going from the projective line to the circle is an angle-doubling)






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Just use the same homomorphism, and then double the angle. Dividing by negatives means that we identify numbers on opposite sides of the origin. Double the angle, and that's not a problem anymore. After all, we can map the circle 2-1 to the circle.



                  (Or, as Tsemo Aristide's answer put it, going from the projective line to the circle is an angle-doubling)







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 2 '18 at 16:15









                  jmerryjmerry

                  5,097514




                  5,097514























                      0












                      $begingroup$

                      $mathbb{R}^*$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb{R}^+$ as topological groups because the first set is not connected and the second is connected. But the quotient of $mathbb{C}^*$ by $mathbb{R}^*$ is the projective line which is the circle.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        $mathbb{R}^*$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb{R}^+$ as topological groups because the first set is not connected and the second is connected. But the quotient of $mathbb{C}^*$ by $mathbb{R}^*$ is the projective line which is the circle.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          0












                          0








                          0





                          $begingroup$

                          $mathbb{R}^*$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb{R}^+$ as topological groups because the first set is not connected and the second is connected. But the quotient of $mathbb{C}^*$ by $mathbb{R}^*$ is the projective line which is the circle.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          $mathbb{R}^*$ is not isomorphic to $mathbb{R}^+$ as topological groups because the first set is not connected and the second is connected. But the quotient of $mathbb{C}^*$ by $mathbb{R}^*$ is the projective line which is the circle.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Dec 2 '18 at 16:04









                          Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

                          57.2k11444




                          57.2k11444






























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