Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$ if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $1$
$begingroup$
Suppose $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(x/y) = f(x) - f(y)$ for all $x,y>0$ and that $f(1) = 0$.
Question: Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$ if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
My attempt on this problem:
Let $a in (0,infty)$. Then $f'(x) = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}.$
All I know is that the top will go to $f(1) = 0$ and the bottom will also go to $0$ but I don't know how to show that this is differentiable on $(0,infty)$. Any help would be appreciated.
real-analysis limits derivatives
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(x/y) = f(x) - f(y)$ for all $x,y>0$ and that $f(1) = 0$.
Question: Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$ if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
My attempt on this problem:
Let $a in (0,infty)$. Then $f'(x) = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}.$
All I know is that the top will go to $f(1) = 0$ and the bottom will also go to $0$ but I don't know how to show that this is differentiable on $(0,infty)$. Any help would be appreciated.
real-analysis limits derivatives
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
1
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(x/y) = f(x) - f(y)$ for all $x,y>0$ and that $f(1) = 0$.
Question: Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$ if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
My attempt on this problem:
Let $a in (0,infty)$. Then $f'(x) = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}.$
All I know is that the top will go to $f(1) = 0$ and the bottom will also go to $0$ but I don't know how to show that this is differentiable on $(0,infty)$. Any help would be appreciated.
real-analysis limits derivatives
$endgroup$
Suppose $f:(0,infty) to mathbb{R}$ satisfies $f(x/y) = f(x) - f(y)$ for all $x,y>0$ and that $f(1) = 0$.
Question: Show that $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$ if and only if $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
My attempt on this problem:
Let $a in (0,infty)$. Then $f'(x) = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}.$
All I know is that the top will go to $f(1) = 0$ and the bottom will also go to $0$ but I don't know how to show that this is differentiable on $(0,infty)$. Any help would be appreciated.
real-analysis limits derivatives
real-analysis limits derivatives
asked Dec 3 '18 at 4:42
Pika_2018Pika_2018
204
204
2
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
1
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
1
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42
2
2
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
1
1
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
If $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$,then $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
For the other direction, suppose $f$ is differentiable at $1$,i.e.$$lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h) - f(1)}{h}=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h)-0}{h}$$ exists. Now let $a in (0,infty)$. Then
begin{align}
f'(a) &= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h}\
& = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} \
&= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}
end{align}
Let $u=frac{h}{a}$. Then we have
begin{align}
f'(a) &=lim_{uto 0} frac{f(1 +u)}{au}\
&=frac{f'(1)}{a}
end{align}
Since $aneq 0$, $f'(a)$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
add a comment |
Your Answer
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$begingroup$
If $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$,then $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
For the other direction, suppose $f$ is differentiable at $1$,i.e.$$lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h) - f(1)}{h}=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h)-0}{h}$$ exists. Now let $a in (0,infty)$. Then
begin{align}
f'(a) &= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h}\
& = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} \
&= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}
end{align}
Let $u=frac{h}{a}$. Then we have
begin{align}
f'(a) &=lim_{uto 0} frac{f(1 +u)}{au}\
&=frac{f'(1)}{a}
end{align}
Since $aneq 0$, $f'(a)$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$,then $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
For the other direction, suppose $f$ is differentiable at $1$,i.e.$$lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h) - f(1)}{h}=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h)-0}{h}$$ exists. Now let $a in (0,infty)$. Then
begin{align}
f'(a) &= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h}\
& = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} \
&= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}
end{align}
Let $u=frac{h}{a}$. Then we have
begin{align}
f'(a) &=lim_{uto 0} frac{f(1 +u)}{au}\
&=frac{f'(1)}{a}
end{align}
Since $aneq 0$, $f'(a)$ exists.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$,then $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
For the other direction, suppose $f$ is differentiable at $1$,i.e.$$lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h) - f(1)}{h}=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h)-0}{h}$$ exists. Now let $a in (0,infty)$. Then
begin{align}
f'(a) &= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h}\
& = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} \
&= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}
end{align}
Let $u=frac{h}{a}$. Then we have
begin{align}
f'(a) &=lim_{uto 0} frac{f(1 +u)}{au}\
&=frac{f'(1)}{a}
end{align}
Since $aneq 0$, $f'(a)$ exists.
$endgroup$
If $f$ is differentiable on $(0,infty)$,then $f$ is differentiable at $1$.
For the other direction, suppose $f$ is differentiable at $1$,i.e.$$lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h) - f(1)}{h}=lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1+h)-0}{h}$$ exists. Now let $a in (0,infty)$. Then
begin{align}
f'(a) &= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(a+h) - f(a)}{h}\
& = lim_{hto 0} frac{f(frac{a+h}{a})}{h} \
&= lim_{hto 0} frac{f(1 +frac{h}{a})}{h}
end{align}
Let $u=frac{h}{a}$. Then we have
begin{align}
f'(a) &=lim_{uto 0} frac{f(1 +u)}{au}\
&=frac{f'(1)}{a}
end{align}
Since $aneq 0$, $f'(a)$ exists.
answered Dec 3 '18 at 4:59
Thomas ShelbyThomas Shelby
2,655421
2,655421
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
1
1
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
Thank you so much!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
add a comment |
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2
$begingroup$
$f(1)=0$ would help you.
$endgroup$
– xbh
Dec 3 '18 at 4:44
1
$begingroup$
$ frac {frac {f(1+frac ha)}a}{frac ha}=frac {f(1+frac ha)}h$ This should also help
$endgroup$
– NL1992
Dec 3 '18 at 4:52
$begingroup$
Thank you guys!
$endgroup$
– Pika_2018
Dec 3 '18 at 5:04
$begingroup$
The value of $f(1)$ follows from putting $x=y$.
$endgroup$
– Paramanand Singh
Dec 3 '18 at 10:42