Do $f_n to f$ almost surely and $0<int f<infty$ imply $int f_n to int f$?











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Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.



EDIT.



I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.










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    Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.



    EDIT.



    I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.



      EDIT.



      I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.










      share|cite|improve this question















      Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.



      EDIT.



      I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.







      real-analysis






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      edited Nov 14 at 8:11

























      asked Nov 14 at 7:53









      Balbadak

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          $I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.






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          • Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:06










          • @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 14 at 8:12










          • I see. I missed an obvious example.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:14











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:06










          • @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 14 at 8:12










          • I see. I missed an obvious example.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:14















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          $I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:06










          • @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 14 at 8:12










          • I see. I missed an obvious example.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:14













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          $I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          $I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 14 at 8:14

























          answered Nov 14 at 7:55









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          39.9k31750




          39.9k31750












          • Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:06










          • @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 14 at 8:12










          • I see. I missed an obvious example.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:14


















          • Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:06










          • @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
            – Kavi Rama Murthy
            Nov 14 at 8:12










          • I see. I missed an obvious example.
            – Balbadak
            Nov 14 at 8:14
















          Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
          – Balbadak
          Nov 14 at 8:06




          Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
          – Balbadak
          Nov 14 at 8:06












          @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 14 at 8:12




          @rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
          – Kavi Rama Murthy
          Nov 14 at 8:12












          I see. I missed an obvious example.
          – Balbadak
          Nov 14 at 8:14




          I see. I missed an obvious example.
          – Balbadak
          Nov 14 at 8:14


















           

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