Do $f_n to f$ almost surely and $0<int f<infty$ imply $int f_n to int f$?
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Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.
EDIT.
I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.
real-analysis
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up vote
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down vote
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Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.
EDIT.
I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.
real-analysis
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.
EDIT.
I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.
real-analysis
Let a sequence of Lebesgue integrable functions $f_n$ converge to $f$ almost surely and $0 < int f < infty$. Does this imply $int f_n to f$? If the condition $0 < int f$ is removed there is many counterexamples, For example, answers for this question provide some examples. All counterexamples I found are "delta function sequences", so $int f_n < infty$ but $f_n to 0$ almost surely. I think that intuitively the condition $0 < int f$ may prohibit the accumulation of the mass of $f_n$ in an infinitely small region.
EDIT.
I'm not sure but an additional condition $int f_n$ converges could be needed. If this additional contion is actually needed, please consider it also.
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited Nov 14 at 8:11
asked Nov 14 at 7:53
Balbadak
564
564
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1 Answer
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$I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
$I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.
$I_{(0,1)}+nI_{(0,frac 1 n)}to I_{(0,1)}$ almost everywhere but the integrals do not converge to the right limit. Sufficient conditions for $lim inf_n =int f$ are contained in basic theorems of measure theory: monotone convergence theorem, dominated convergence theorem etc.
edited Nov 14 at 8:14
answered Nov 14 at 7:55
Kavi Rama Murthy
39.9k31750
39.9k31750
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
add a comment |
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
Do they not converge? I think the integrals are $2$.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:06
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
@rimusolem What I meant was 'integrals do not converge to the right limit'. $int f_n to int f +1$.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 14 at 8:12
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
I see. I missed an obvious example.
– Balbadak
Nov 14 at 8:14
add a comment |
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