Proving associativity in propositional logic











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$(p∧q) ∧ r ⊢ p ∧ (q∧r)$



In the sequent above, the only thing that happens is switching brackets between p&q and r, to q&r and separating out p. I could use the elimination rule between p&q and r, and get these separately, combine them with the introduction rule to get the conclusion.. But what step do I take to replace the brackets from p&q to q&r? Is their a rule that would help me move brackets?










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    The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 12:50










  • As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
    – Bram28
    Nov 13 at 12:55










  • See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 13:20

















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












$(p∧q) ∧ r ⊢ p ∧ (q∧r)$



In the sequent above, the only thing that happens is switching brackets between p&q and r, to q&r and separating out p. I could use the elimination rule between p&q and r, and get these separately, combine them with the introduction rule to get the conclusion.. But what step do I take to replace the brackets from p&q to q&r? Is their a rule that would help me move brackets?










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 12:50










  • As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
    – Bram28
    Nov 13 at 12:55










  • See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 13:20















up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











$(p∧q) ∧ r ⊢ p ∧ (q∧r)$



In the sequent above, the only thing that happens is switching brackets between p&q and r, to q&r and separating out p. I could use the elimination rule between p&q and r, and get these separately, combine them with the introduction rule to get the conclusion.. But what step do I take to replace the brackets from p&q to q&r? Is their a rule that would help me move brackets?










share|cite|improve this question















$(p∧q) ∧ r ⊢ p ∧ (q∧r)$



In the sequent above, the only thing that happens is switching brackets between p&q and r, to q&r and separating out p. I could use the elimination rule between p&q and r, and get these separately, combine them with the introduction rule to get the conclusion.. But what step do I take to replace the brackets from p&q to q&r? Is their a rule that would help me move brackets?







propositional-calculus






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edited Nov 13 at 13:15









Mauro ALLEGRANZA

63.4k448110




63.4k448110










asked Nov 13 at 12:45









haris.a.amin

11




11








  • 1




    The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 12:50










  • As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
    – Bram28
    Nov 13 at 12:55










  • See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 13:20
















  • 1




    The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 12:50










  • As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
    – Bram28
    Nov 13 at 12:55










  • See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Nov 13 at 13:20










1




1




The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 13 at 12:50




The "rule that would help me move brackets" is the associativity property : but it seems that you have to prove it.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 13 at 12:50












As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
– Bram28
Nov 13 at 12:55




As Mauro says: moving the brackets is typically a basic rule ... and it is typically not derivable from other rules of boolean algebra ... but it all depends on what rules you do have: so, which rules can or must you use? Maybe you have to give a formal proof but then once again: what rules are given to you to use?
– Bram28
Nov 13 at 12:55












See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 13 at 13:20






See the post Natural deduction: Derive (ϕ ∨ ψ) ∨ σ → ϕ ∨ (ψ ∨ σ).
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Nov 13 at 13:20












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If you want to prove it formally, you have to stay at the formal rules of the syntax, like e.g. :




The set well-formed propositional formulas is the smallest set $X$ with the properties




(i) $p_i ∈ X, i ∈ mathbb N$,




(ii) if $ϕ,ψ ∈ X$, then $(ϕ ∧ ψ) ∈ X$, and so on.




Thus, the correct formula will be :




$((p land q) land r)$,




and the proof will be :



1) $(p land q)$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



2) $r$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



3) $p$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



4) $q$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



5) $(q land r)$ --- from 4) and 2) by $land$-intro



and so on...






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    If you want to prove it formally, you have to stay at the formal rules of the syntax, like e.g. :




    The set well-formed propositional formulas is the smallest set $X$ with the properties




    (i) $p_i ∈ X, i ∈ mathbb N$,




    (ii) if $ϕ,ψ ∈ X$, then $(ϕ ∧ ψ) ∈ X$, and so on.




    Thus, the correct formula will be :




    $((p land q) land r)$,




    and the proof will be :



    1) $(p land q)$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



    2) $r$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



    3) $p$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



    4) $q$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



    5) $(q land r)$ --- from 4) and 2) by $land$-intro



    and so on...






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      If you want to prove it formally, you have to stay at the formal rules of the syntax, like e.g. :




      The set well-formed propositional formulas is the smallest set $X$ with the properties




      (i) $p_i ∈ X, i ∈ mathbb N$,




      (ii) if $ϕ,ψ ∈ X$, then $(ϕ ∧ ψ) ∈ X$, and so on.




      Thus, the correct formula will be :




      $((p land q) land r)$,




      and the proof will be :



      1) $(p land q)$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



      2) $r$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



      3) $p$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



      4) $q$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



      5) $(q land r)$ --- from 4) and 2) by $land$-intro



      and so on...






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        If you want to prove it formally, you have to stay at the formal rules of the syntax, like e.g. :




        The set well-formed propositional formulas is the smallest set $X$ with the properties




        (i) $p_i ∈ X, i ∈ mathbb N$,




        (ii) if $ϕ,ψ ∈ X$, then $(ϕ ∧ ψ) ∈ X$, and so on.




        Thus, the correct formula will be :




        $((p land q) land r)$,




        and the proof will be :



        1) $(p land q)$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



        2) $r$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



        3) $p$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



        4) $q$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



        5) $(q land r)$ --- from 4) and 2) by $land$-intro



        and so on...






        share|cite|improve this answer














        If you want to prove it formally, you have to stay at the formal rules of the syntax, like e.g. :




        The set well-formed propositional formulas is the smallest set $X$ with the properties




        (i) $p_i ∈ X, i ∈ mathbb N$,




        (ii) if $ϕ,ψ ∈ X$, then $(ϕ ∧ ψ) ∈ X$, and so on.




        Thus, the correct formula will be :




        $((p land q) land r)$,




        and the proof will be :



        1) $(p land q)$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



        2) $r$ --- from premise by $land$-elim



        3) $p$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



        4) $q$ --- from 1) by $land$-elim



        5) $(q land r)$ --- from 4) and 2) by $land$-intro



        and so on...







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 14 at 7:49

























        answered Nov 13 at 13:04









        Mauro ALLEGRANZA

        63.4k448110




        63.4k448110






























             

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