On proving that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is not a free $mathbb{Z}$-module











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I've just started self-studying commutative algebra via video lectures from India Institute of Technology, and this question came up in the section on modules. It seems easy in a way, but I guess I'm missing something trivial. This is rather directly after introducing free modules, which I still haven't completely grasped. The definition of a free module used here is:




An $A$-module $M$ is said to be free if $M=bigoplus_{lambdainLambda} M_lambda$, where $forall lambdainLambda quad M_lambdacong A$.




Question 1: Would someone help me show (and to understand clearly) that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, where $n_iin{2,3,dots}$, is not a free $mathbb{Z}$-module (where $mathbb{Z}_{n_i}=mathbb{Z}/n_imathbb{Z})$ ?



The lecturer gave the impression that this should be straight forward, so preferably I want to do this by showing that there cannot be an isomorphism



$varphi: mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}tobigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$,



where $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}=mathbb{Z}oplusmathbb{Z}oplus.../"|Lambda|text{ times }" /...oplusmathbb{Z}$.



Question 2: Is there an even simpler answer than my potential one below?



Thoughts (Attempt):



The potential problem is likely that each $Z_{n_i}$ is a finite $Z$-module. By assuming $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is free, and projecting down, $pi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we exhibit finite submodules $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$. Now, I found out that submodules of free modules over a PID are free, and thus since $mathbb{Z}$ is a PID, we have that each submodule $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ must be a free $mathbb{Z}$-module. By the definition above there would then exist an isomorphism $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}topi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$, which cannot be the case, since this function can not be injective since $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ is finite. //



However, I cannot remember that we have yet mentioned that submodules of free modules over a PID are free. Is there thus an even easier way of getting an answer to Question 1?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
    – Severin Schraven
    Nov 14 at 14:43












  • Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
    – Servaes
    Nov 14 at 14:48












  • @Servaes : good point, I will add that.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:43










  • @SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:44















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Setup:



I've just started self-studying commutative algebra via video lectures from India Institute of Technology, and this question came up in the section on modules. It seems easy in a way, but I guess I'm missing something trivial. This is rather directly after introducing free modules, which I still haven't completely grasped. The definition of a free module used here is:




An $A$-module $M$ is said to be free if $M=bigoplus_{lambdainLambda} M_lambda$, where $forall lambdainLambda quad M_lambdacong A$.




Question 1: Would someone help me show (and to understand clearly) that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, where $n_iin{2,3,dots}$, is not a free $mathbb{Z}$-module (where $mathbb{Z}_{n_i}=mathbb{Z}/n_imathbb{Z})$ ?



The lecturer gave the impression that this should be straight forward, so preferably I want to do this by showing that there cannot be an isomorphism



$varphi: mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}tobigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$,



where $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}=mathbb{Z}oplusmathbb{Z}oplus.../"|Lambda|text{ times }" /...oplusmathbb{Z}$.



Question 2: Is there an even simpler answer than my potential one below?



Thoughts (Attempt):



The potential problem is likely that each $Z_{n_i}$ is a finite $Z$-module. By assuming $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is free, and projecting down, $pi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we exhibit finite submodules $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$. Now, I found out that submodules of free modules over a PID are free, and thus since $mathbb{Z}$ is a PID, we have that each submodule $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ must be a free $mathbb{Z}$-module. By the definition above there would then exist an isomorphism $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}topi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$, which cannot be the case, since this function can not be injective since $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ is finite. //



However, I cannot remember that we have yet mentioned that submodules of free modules over a PID are free. Is there thus an even easier way of getting an answer to Question 1?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
    – Severin Schraven
    Nov 14 at 14:43












  • Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
    – Servaes
    Nov 14 at 14:48












  • @Servaes : good point, I will add that.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:43










  • @SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:44













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Setup:



I've just started self-studying commutative algebra via video lectures from India Institute of Technology, and this question came up in the section on modules. It seems easy in a way, but I guess I'm missing something trivial. This is rather directly after introducing free modules, which I still haven't completely grasped. The definition of a free module used here is:




An $A$-module $M$ is said to be free if $M=bigoplus_{lambdainLambda} M_lambda$, where $forall lambdainLambda quad M_lambdacong A$.




Question 1: Would someone help me show (and to understand clearly) that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, where $n_iin{2,3,dots}$, is not a free $mathbb{Z}$-module (where $mathbb{Z}_{n_i}=mathbb{Z}/n_imathbb{Z})$ ?



The lecturer gave the impression that this should be straight forward, so preferably I want to do this by showing that there cannot be an isomorphism



$varphi: mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}tobigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$,



where $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}=mathbb{Z}oplusmathbb{Z}oplus.../"|Lambda|text{ times }" /...oplusmathbb{Z}$.



Question 2: Is there an even simpler answer than my potential one below?



Thoughts (Attempt):



The potential problem is likely that each $Z_{n_i}$ is a finite $Z$-module. By assuming $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is free, and projecting down, $pi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we exhibit finite submodules $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$. Now, I found out that submodules of free modules over a PID are free, and thus since $mathbb{Z}$ is a PID, we have that each submodule $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ must be a free $mathbb{Z}$-module. By the definition above there would then exist an isomorphism $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}topi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$, which cannot be the case, since this function can not be injective since $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ is finite. //



However, I cannot remember that we have yet mentioned that submodules of free modules over a PID are free. Is there thus an even easier way of getting an answer to Question 1?










share|cite|improve this question















Setup:



I've just started self-studying commutative algebra via video lectures from India Institute of Technology, and this question came up in the section on modules. It seems easy in a way, but I guess I'm missing something trivial. This is rather directly after introducing free modules, which I still haven't completely grasped. The definition of a free module used here is:




An $A$-module $M$ is said to be free if $M=bigoplus_{lambdainLambda} M_lambda$, where $forall lambdainLambda quad M_lambdacong A$.




Question 1: Would someone help me show (and to understand clearly) that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, where $n_iin{2,3,dots}$, is not a free $mathbb{Z}$-module (where $mathbb{Z}_{n_i}=mathbb{Z}/n_imathbb{Z})$ ?



The lecturer gave the impression that this should be straight forward, so preferably I want to do this by showing that there cannot be an isomorphism



$varphi: mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}tobigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$,



where $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}=mathbb{Z}oplusmathbb{Z}oplus.../"|Lambda|text{ times }" /...oplusmathbb{Z}$.



Question 2: Is there an even simpler answer than my potential one below?



Thoughts (Attempt):



The potential problem is likely that each $Z_{n_i}$ is a finite $Z$-module. By assuming $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is free, and projecting down, $pi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we exhibit finite submodules $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$. Now, I found out that submodules of free modules over a PID are free, and thus since $mathbb{Z}$ is a PID, we have that each submodule $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ must be a free $mathbb{Z}$-module. By the definition above there would then exist an isomorphism $mathbb{Z}^{bigoplusLambda}topi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$, which cannot be the case, since this function can not be injective since $pi^{-1}(Z_{n_i})$ is finite. //



However, I cannot remember that we have yet mentioned that submodules of free modules over a PID are free. Is there thus an even easier way of getting an answer to Question 1?







abstract-algebra modules free-modules






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edited Nov 14 at 19:47









user26857

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asked Nov 14 at 14:35









Christopher.L

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  • Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
    – Severin Schraven
    Nov 14 at 14:43












  • Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
    – Servaes
    Nov 14 at 14:48












  • @Servaes : good point, I will add that.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:43










  • @SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:44


















  • Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
    – Severin Schraven
    Nov 14 at 14:43












  • Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
    – Servaes
    Nov 14 at 14:48












  • @Servaes : good point, I will add that.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:43










  • @SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:44
















Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
– Severin Schraven
Nov 14 at 14:43






Hint: What happens if you multiply an element in $mathbb{Z}_n$ by $n$? What are the zero divisors of direct sums of $mathbb{Z}$?
– Severin Schraven
Nov 14 at 14:43














Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
– Servaes
Nov 14 at 14:48






Note that the direct sum $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$. Do you consider $0$ a natural number?
– Servaes
Nov 14 at 14:48














@Servaes : good point, I will add that.
– Christopher.L
Nov 14 at 15:43




@Servaes : good point, I will add that.
– Christopher.L
Nov 14 at 15:43












@SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
– Christopher.L
Nov 14 at 15:44




@SeverinSchraven : Yes, thank you, I had read the answer below before your comment; would've been sufficient to solve it though.
– Christopher.L
Nov 14 at 15:44










3 Answers
3






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up vote
3
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accepted










Easy answer: isomorphisms preserve torsion elements in the underlying abelian group, but $$bigopluslimits_{i=1}^inftymathbb{Z}_{n_i}$$ contains a bunch of torsion elements (for example, if $n_1 neq 1$, then $(1,0,0,0,ldots)$ (otherwise move on to the first term such that $n_i neq 1$: if there isn't one, then your module is trivial, which is free, so you should just throw that in your hypotheses)) has order $n_i$, so is torsion), but free $mathbb{Z}$-modules have no torsion elements, so no such isomorphism can exist.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:31












  • Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
    – Christopher.L
    Nov 14 at 15:34












  • Yes, that's correct.
    – user3482749
    Nov 14 at 15:34


















up vote
1
down vote













You can show this using the fact that submodules of free modules are free over PID, but there is a much simpler way: in a free $mathbb Z$-module the equation $n cdot x = 0$ for some fixed $n$ has only one solution ($x=0$), but in $M = bigoplus mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ all elements of the summand $mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ are solutions of $n_i cdot x = 0$, and the summand injects canonically into the sum, providing non-zero solutions in $M$.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Indeed you want to show that no such isomorphism $varphi$ exists. To do so, it suffices to note that a free module over $Bbb{Z}$ has precisely one element of finite order; the identity element. If $n_ineq0$ for some $i$, then the $i$-th basis vector (the element of $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ that projects down to $1$ on $Bbb{Z}_{n_i}$ and to $0$ on every other coordinate) is of order $n_i$. From this observation it is not hard to deduce that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if and only if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
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      active

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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

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      active

      oldest

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      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Easy answer: isomorphisms preserve torsion elements in the underlying abelian group, but $$bigopluslimits_{i=1}^inftymathbb{Z}_{n_i}$$ contains a bunch of torsion elements (for example, if $n_1 neq 1$, then $(1,0,0,0,ldots)$ (otherwise move on to the first term such that $n_i neq 1$: if there isn't one, then your module is trivial, which is free, so you should just throw that in your hypotheses)) has order $n_i$, so is torsion), but free $mathbb{Z}$-modules have no torsion elements, so no such isomorphism can exist.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:31












      • Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:34












      • Yes, that's correct.
        – user3482749
        Nov 14 at 15:34















      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted










      Easy answer: isomorphisms preserve torsion elements in the underlying abelian group, but $$bigopluslimits_{i=1}^inftymathbb{Z}_{n_i}$$ contains a bunch of torsion elements (for example, if $n_1 neq 1$, then $(1,0,0,0,ldots)$ (otherwise move on to the first term such that $n_i neq 1$: if there isn't one, then your module is trivial, which is free, so you should just throw that in your hypotheses)) has order $n_i$, so is torsion), but free $mathbb{Z}$-modules have no torsion elements, so no such isomorphism can exist.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:31












      • Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:34












      • Yes, that's correct.
        – user3482749
        Nov 14 at 15:34













      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      3
      down vote



      accepted






      Easy answer: isomorphisms preserve torsion elements in the underlying abelian group, but $$bigopluslimits_{i=1}^inftymathbb{Z}_{n_i}$$ contains a bunch of torsion elements (for example, if $n_1 neq 1$, then $(1,0,0,0,ldots)$ (otherwise move on to the first term such that $n_i neq 1$: if there isn't one, then your module is trivial, which is free, so you should just throw that in your hypotheses)) has order $n_i$, so is torsion), but free $mathbb{Z}$-modules have no torsion elements, so no such isomorphism can exist.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Easy answer: isomorphisms preserve torsion elements in the underlying abelian group, but $$bigopluslimits_{i=1}^inftymathbb{Z}_{n_i}$$ contains a bunch of torsion elements (for example, if $n_1 neq 1$, then $(1,0,0,0,ldots)$ (otherwise move on to the first term such that $n_i neq 1$: if there isn't one, then your module is trivial, which is free, so you should just throw that in your hypotheses)) has order $n_i$, so is torsion), but free $mathbb{Z}$-modules have no torsion elements, so no such isomorphism can exist.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Nov 14 at 14:42









      user3482749

      981411




      981411












      • Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:31












      • Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:34












      • Yes, that's correct.
        – user3482749
        Nov 14 at 15:34


















      • Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:31












      • Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
        – Christopher.L
        Nov 14 at 15:34












      • Yes, that's correct.
        – user3482749
        Nov 14 at 15:34
















      Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
      – Christopher.L
      Nov 14 at 15:31






      Ok, I had no idea what torsion was, so I had to read about that; Basically the analog to zero divisors for rings? Ok, it seems to be what everyone else is saying right, so: Let $psi:bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}tomathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ be the assumed isom., then for each $xin pi^{-1}(Z_k)subset bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$, we have $0=psi(0)=psi(kx)=kpsi(x)Rightarrow psi(x)=0$, since $mathbb{Z}^{oplusLambda}$ has no torsion (aka torsion free?), and in this case it's directly analog to the fact that $mathbb{Z}$ is a domain?
      – Christopher.L
      Nov 14 at 15:31














      Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
      – Christopher.L
      Nov 14 at 15:34






      Or, well, not each $xinpi^{-1}(Z_k)$, but rather each $x$ of the form $(0,0,dots,x_i,0,dots)$, where $x_iin mathbb{Z}_k$ i guess.
      – Christopher.L
      Nov 14 at 15:34














      Yes, that's correct.
      – user3482749
      Nov 14 at 15:34




      Yes, that's correct.
      – user3482749
      Nov 14 at 15:34










      up vote
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      down vote













      You can show this using the fact that submodules of free modules are free over PID, but there is a much simpler way: in a free $mathbb Z$-module the equation $n cdot x = 0$ for some fixed $n$ has only one solution ($x=0$), but in $M = bigoplus mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ all elements of the summand $mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ are solutions of $n_i cdot x = 0$, and the summand injects canonically into the sum, providing non-zero solutions in $M$.






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        You can show this using the fact that submodules of free modules are free over PID, but there is a much simpler way: in a free $mathbb Z$-module the equation $n cdot x = 0$ for some fixed $n$ has only one solution ($x=0$), but in $M = bigoplus mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ all elements of the summand $mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ are solutions of $n_i cdot x = 0$, and the summand injects canonically into the sum, providing non-zero solutions in $M$.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          You can show this using the fact that submodules of free modules are free over PID, but there is a much simpler way: in a free $mathbb Z$-module the equation $n cdot x = 0$ for some fixed $n$ has only one solution ($x=0$), but in $M = bigoplus mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ all elements of the summand $mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ are solutions of $n_i cdot x = 0$, and the summand injects canonically into the sum, providing non-zero solutions in $M$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          You can show this using the fact that submodules of free modules are free over PID, but there is a much simpler way: in a free $mathbb Z$-module the equation $n cdot x = 0$ for some fixed $n$ has only one solution ($x=0$), but in $M = bigoplus mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ all elements of the summand $mathbb Z / n_i mathbb Z$ are solutions of $n_i cdot x = 0$, and the summand injects canonically into the sum, providing non-zero solutions in $M$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 14 at 14:41









          lisyarus

          10.3k21433




          10.3k21433






















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              Indeed you want to show that no such isomorphism $varphi$ exists. To do so, it suffices to note that a free module over $Bbb{Z}$ has precisely one element of finite order; the identity element. If $n_ineq0$ for some $i$, then the $i$-th basis vector (the element of $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ that projects down to $1$ on $Bbb{Z}_{n_i}$ and to $0$ on every other coordinate) is of order $n_i$. From this observation it is not hard to deduce that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if and only if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$.






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                down vote













                Indeed you want to show that no such isomorphism $varphi$ exists. To do so, it suffices to note that a free module over $Bbb{Z}$ has precisely one element of finite order; the identity element. If $n_ineq0$ for some $i$, then the $i$-th basis vector (the element of $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ that projects down to $1$ on $Bbb{Z}_{n_i}$ and to $0$ on every other coordinate) is of order $n_i$. From this observation it is not hard to deduce that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if and only if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  Indeed you want to show that no such isomorphism $varphi$ exists. To do so, it suffices to note that a free module over $Bbb{Z}$ has precisely one element of finite order; the identity element. If $n_ineq0$ for some $i$, then the $i$-th basis vector (the element of $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ that projects down to $1$ on $Bbb{Z}_{n_i}$ and to $0$ on every other coordinate) is of order $n_i$. From this observation it is not hard to deduce that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if and only if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Indeed you want to show that no such isomorphism $varphi$ exists. To do so, it suffices to note that a free module over $Bbb{Z}$ has precisely one element of finite order; the identity element. If $n_ineq0$ for some $i$, then the $i$-th basis vector (the element of $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ that projects down to $1$ on $Bbb{Z}_{n_i}$ and to $0$ on every other coordinate) is of order $n_i$. From this observation it is not hard to deduce that $bigoplus_{i=1}^{infty}mathbb{Z}_{n_i}$ is a free $Bbb{Z}$-module if and only if $n_ileq1$ for all $i$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 14 at 14:42









                  Servaes

                  20.6k33789




                  20.6k33789






























                       

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