Involution action on $H^1(S^1times S^2)$
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I am studying about an action $I^*$ on a de Rham cohomology group $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ induced from an action $Icdot (z,x)=(overline{z},-x) $ where $S^1times S^2subset mathbb{C}times mathbb{R}^3$. Note that, by Kunneth formula, $$H^1(S^1times S^2)=mathbb{R}.$$
Thus, I want to find a nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ and want to see how $I^*$ acts to the element.
And my teacher taught me as below.
Let $dtheta in Omega^1(S^1)$ be a generator of $H^1(S^1)=mathbb{R}.$ And let $pi:S^1times S^2rightarrow S^1$ and let $omega=pi^*(dtheta)$. Then clearly, $domega=0$ so $[omega]$ is nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$. If $iota : S^1times {text{north pole}}hookrightarrow S^1times S^2$ is an embedding, observe that
$$picirciota =Id implies iota^*pi^*=Id implies iota^*(omega)=dtheta implies iota^*[omega]=[dtheta] $$
Thus, $$I^*omega=I^*pi^*(dtheta)=pi^*(I_1^*dtheta)=pi^*(-dtheta)=-omega.$$
So we get $I^*=-Id$.
But I got stuck at why $I_1^*dtheta=-dtheta$.
If we see carefully, $I_1^*dtheta(z)=dtheta(overline{z})$. I don't know where is wrong and where I am missing.
I would very appreciate for any help and solution for this issue! Thank you!
group-actions de-rham-cohomology pullback
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am studying about an action $I^*$ on a de Rham cohomology group $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ induced from an action $Icdot (z,x)=(overline{z},-x) $ where $S^1times S^2subset mathbb{C}times mathbb{R}^3$. Note that, by Kunneth formula, $$H^1(S^1times S^2)=mathbb{R}.$$
Thus, I want to find a nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ and want to see how $I^*$ acts to the element.
And my teacher taught me as below.
Let $dtheta in Omega^1(S^1)$ be a generator of $H^1(S^1)=mathbb{R}.$ And let $pi:S^1times S^2rightarrow S^1$ and let $omega=pi^*(dtheta)$. Then clearly, $domega=0$ so $[omega]$ is nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$. If $iota : S^1times {text{north pole}}hookrightarrow S^1times S^2$ is an embedding, observe that
$$picirciota =Id implies iota^*pi^*=Id implies iota^*(omega)=dtheta implies iota^*[omega]=[dtheta] $$
Thus, $$I^*omega=I^*pi^*(dtheta)=pi^*(I_1^*dtheta)=pi^*(-dtheta)=-omega.$$
So we get $I^*=-Id$.
But I got stuck at why $I_1^*dtheta=-dtheta$.
If we see carefully, $I_1^*dtheta(z)=dtheta(overline{z})$. I don't know where is wrong and where I am missing.
I would very appreciate for any help and solution for this issue! Thank you!
group-actions de-rham-cohomology pullback
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am studying about an action $I^*$ on a de Rham cohomology group $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ induced from an action $Icdot (z,x)=(overline{z},-x) $ where $S^1times S^2subset mathbb{C}times mathbb{R}^3$. Note that, by Kunneth formula, $$H^1(S^1times S^2)=mathbb{R}.$$
Thus, I want to find a nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ and want to see how $I^*$ acts to the element.
And my teacher taught me as below.
Let $dtheta in Omega^1(S^1)$ be a generator of $H^1(S^1)=mathbb{R}.$ And let $pi:S^1times S^2rightarrow S^1$ and let $omega=pi^*(dtheta)$. Then clearly, $domega=0$ so $[omega]$ is nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$. If $iota : S^1times {text{north pole}}hookrightarrow S^1times S^2$ is an embedding, observe that
$$picirciota =Id implies iota^*pi^*=Id implies iota^*(omega)=dtheta implies iota^*[omega]=[dtheta] $$
Thus, $$I^*omega=I^*pi^*(dtheta)=pi^*(I_1^*dtheta)=pi^*(-dtheta)=-omega.$$
So we get $I^*=-Id$.
But I got stuck at why $I_1^*dtheta=-dtheta$.
If we see carefully, $I_1^*dtheta(z)=dtheta(overline{z})$. I don't know where is wrong and where I am missing.
I would very appreciate for any help and solution for this issue! Thank you!
group-actions de-rham-cohomology pullback
$endgroup$
I am studying about an action $I^*$ on a de Rham cohomology group $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ induced from an action $Icdot (z,x)=(overline{z},-x) $ where $S^1times S^2subset mathbb{C}times mathbb{R}^3$. Note that, by Kunneth formula, $$H^1(S^1times S^2)=mathbb{R}.$$
Thus, I want to find a nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$ and want to see how $I^*$ acts to the element.
And my teacher taught me as below.
Let $dtheta in Omega^1(S^1)$ be a generator of $H^1(S^1)=mathbb{R}.$ And let $pi:S^1times S^2rightarrow S^1$ and let $omega=pi^*(dtheta)$. Then clearly, $domega=0$ so $[omega]$ is nonzero element in $H^1(S^1times S^2)$. If $iota : S^1times {text{north pole}}hookrightarrow S^1times S^2$ is an embedding, observe that
$$picirciota =Id implies iota^*pi^*=Id implies iota^*(omega)=dtheta implies iota^*[omega]=[dtheta] $$
Thus, $$I^*omega=I^*pi^*(dtheta)=pi^*(I_1^*dtheta)=pi^*(-dtheta)=-omega.$$
So we get $I^*=-Id$.
But I got stuck at why $I_1^*dtheta=-dtheta$.
If we see carefully, $I_1^*dtheta(z)=dtheta(overline{z})$. I don't know where is wrong and where I am missing.
I would very appreciate for any help and solution for this issue! Thank you!
group-actions de-rham-cohomology pullback
group-actions de-rham-cohomology pullback
edited Dec 24 '18 at 5:04
Michael Albanese
65k1599318
65k1599318
asked Dec 24 '18 at 4:56
Lev BanLev Ban
1,0771317
1,0771317
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1 Answer
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Note that $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1)$. As $(thetacirc I_1)(z) = theta(I_1(z)) = theta(bar{z}) = -theta(z)$, so $thetacirc I_1 = -theta$ and hence $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1) = d(-theta) = -dtheta$.
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Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
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– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
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Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Note that $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1)$. As $(thetacirc I_1)(z) = theta(I_1(z)) = theta(bar{z}) = -theta(z)$, so $thetacirc I_1 = -theta$ and hence $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1) = d(-theta) = -dtheta$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1)$. As $(thetacirc I_1)(z) = theta(I_1(z)) = theta(bar{z}) = -theta(z)$, so $thetacirc I_1 = -theta$ and hence $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1) = d(-theta) = -dtheta$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Note that $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1)$. As $(thetacirc I_1)(z) = theta(I_1(z)) = theta(bar{z}) = -theta(z)$, so $thetacirc I_1 = -theta$ and hence $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1) = d(-theta) = -dtheta$.
$endgroup$
Note that $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1)$. As $(thetacirc I_1)(z) = theta(I_1(z)) = theta(bar{z}) = -theta(z)$, so $thetacirc I_1 = -theta$ and hence $I_1^*dtheta = d(thetacirc I_1) = d(-theta) = -dtheta$.
answered Dec 24 '18 at 5:01
Michael AlbaneseMichael Albanese
65k1599318
65k1599318
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Thank you for the answer! But could I ask why $theta(overline{z})=-theta(z)$?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:06
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
Recall that $theta(z)$ is the argument of $z$. So if $z = e^{ialpha}$, then $theta(z) = alpha$. On the other hand $bar{z} = e^{-ialpha}$, so $theta(bar{z}) = -alpha = -theta(z)$.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:08
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
I guess that is that. But the reason why I got confused it that my teacher has not specify what was $theta$. He just said $dtheta$ is the generator. Should $theta$ be such a function in order for $dtheta$ be a generator?
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
@LeB: Yes. It is common to denote the generator of $H^1_{text{dR}}(S^1)$ by $dtheta$ where $theta$ is the argument function.
$endgroup$
– Michael Albanese
Dec 24 '18 at 5:16
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
$begingroup$
Ah.. I got it.. Thank you!
$endgroup$
– Lev Ban
Dec 24 '18 at 5:20
add a comment |
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