Show that if $f(z)$ is entire and $leftvert f(z) rightvert > M$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$, then $f(z)$ is...












0












$begingroup$


I am trying to prove that if $f(z)$ is entire and $leftvert f(z) rightvert > M$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$, then $f(z)$ is constant. Is my proof correct?



Since $f(z)$ is entire, we know that $frac{1}{f(z)}$ is entire and satisfies $leftvert frac{1}{f(z)} rightvert < 1/M$. So, by Liouville's Theorem, $frac{1}{f(z)}$, and hence $f(z)$, is constant.










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  • $begingroup$
    I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul K
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:35






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your question?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:36
















0












$begingroup$


I am trying to prove that if $f(z)$ is entire and $leftvert f(z) rightvert > M$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$, then $f(z)$ is constant. Is my proof correct?



Since $f(z)$ is entire, we know that $frac{1}{f(z)}$ is entire and satisfies $leftvert frac{1}{f(z)} rightvert < 1/M$. So, by Liouville's Theorem, $frac{1}{f(z)}$, and hence $f(z)$, is constant.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul K
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:35






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your question?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:36














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I am trying to prove that if $f(z)$ is entire and $leftvert f(z) rightvert > M$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$, then $f(z)$ is constant. Is my proof correct?



Since $f(z)$ is entire, we know that $frac{1}{f(z)}$ is entire and satisfies $leftvert frac{1}{f(z)} rightvert < 1/M$. So, by Liouville's Theorem, $frac{1}{f(z)}$, and hence $f(z)$, is constant.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am trying to prove that if $f(z)$ is entire and $leftvert f(z) rightvert > M$ for all $z in mathbb{C}$, then $f(z)$ is constant. Is my proof correct?



Since $f(z)$ is entire, we know that $frac{1}{f(z)}$ is entire and satisfies $leftvert frac{1}{f(z)} rightvert < 1/M$. So, by Liouville's Theorem, $frac{1}{f(z)}$, and hence $f(z)$, is constant.







complex-analysis proof-verification






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edited Dec 2 '18 at 17:38







Yunus Syed

















asked Dec 2 '18 at 15:33









Yunus SyedYunus Syed

1,217218




1,217218












  • $begingroup$
    I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul K
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:35






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your question?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:36


















  • $begingroup$
    I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
    $endgroup$
    – mathworker21
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:34










  • $begingroup$
    Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul K
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:35






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your question?
    $endgroup$
    – Did
    Dec 2 '18 at 15:36
















$begingroup$
I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Dec 2 '18 at 15:34




$begingroup$
I think nonconstant entire functions can only miss 1 point?
$endgroup$
– mathworker21
Dec 2 '18 at 15:34












$begingroup$
Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
$endgroup$
– Paul K
Dec 2 '18 at 15:35




$begingroup$
Although that is true @mathworker21 the proof given is much more elementary and only uses Liouville.
$endgroup$
– Paul K
Dec 2 '18 at 15:35




3




3




$begingroup$
What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 2 '18 at 15:36




$begingroup$
What is your question?
$endgroup$
– Did
Dec 2 '18 at 15:36










1 Answer
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$begingroup$


Is my proof correct?




The correct start of the proof should be:




Since $f$ is entire and nowhere zero, we know that $frac{1}{f}$ is entire ...




Perhaps you meant that without writing it explicitly. You should
also distinguish between $f$ (the function) and $f(z)$ (a complex number, the function evaluated at $z$).



Apart from that, the proof is correct.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    active

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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$


    Is my proof correct?




    The correct start of the proof should be:




    Since $f$ is entire and nowhere zero, we know that $frac{1}{f}$ is entire ...




    Perhaps you meant that without writing it explicitly. You should
    also distinguish between $f$ (the function) and $f(z)$ (a complex number, the function evaluated at $z$).



    Apart from that, the proof is correct.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$


      Is my proof correct?




      The correct start of the proof should be:




      Since $f$ is entire and nowhere zero, we know that $frac{1}{f}$ is entire ...




      Perhaps you meant that without writing it explicitly. You should
      also distinguish between $f$ (the function) and $f(z)$ (a complex number, the function evaluated at $z$).



      Apart from that, the proof is correct.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$


        Is my proof correct?




        The correct start of the proof should be:




        Since $f$ is entire and nowhere zero, we know that $frac{1}{f}$ is entire ...




        Perhaps you meant that without writing it explicitly. You should
        also distinguish between $f$ (the function) and $f(z)$ (a complex number, the function evaluated at $z$).



        Apart from that, the proof is correct.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$




        Is my proof correct?




        The correct start of the proof should be:




        Since $f$ is entire and nowhere zero, we know that $frac{1}{f}$ is entire ...




        Perhaps you meant that without writing it explicitly. You should
        also distinguish between $f$ (the function) and $f(z)$ (a complex number, the function evaluated at $z$).



        Apart from that, the proof is correct.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 2 '18 at 17:49









        Martin RMartin R

        27.9k33255




        27.9k33255






























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