Jordan curve and Conformal maps












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Let $mathbb D$ be the unitary open disk, $D$ a bounded domain(open and connected) with boundary a jordan curve and $f$ a conformal map from $mathbb D$ to $D$, is it true that we can extend $f$ as an homeomorphism from $overline{mathbb D}$ to $overline{D}$? and if it is true, does it hold for two bounded domains with boundary a jordan curve?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $mathbb D$ be the unitary open disk, $D$ a bounded domain(open and connected) with boundary a jordan curve and $f$ a conformal map from $mathbb D$ to $D$, is it true that we can extend $f$ as an homeomorphism from $overline{mathbb D}$ to $overline{D}$? and if it is true, does it hold for two bounded domains with boundary a jordan curve?










    share|cite|improve this question









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      $begingroup$


      Let $mathbb D$ be the unitary open disk, $D$ a bounded domain(open and connected) with boundary a jordan curve and $f$ a conformal map from $mathbb D$ to $D$, is it true that we can extend $f$ as an homeomorphism from $overline{mathbb D}$ to $overline{D}$? and if it is true, does it hold for two bounded domains with boundary a jordan curve?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $mathbb D$ be the unitary open disk, $D$ a bounded domain(open and connected) with boundary a jordan curve and $f$ a conformal map from $mathbb D$ to $D$, is it true that we can extend $f$ as an homeomorphism from $overline{mathbb D}$ to $overline{D}$? and if it is true, does it hold for two bounded domains with boundary a jordan curve?







      complex-analysis riemann-surfaces conformal-geometry






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      asked Dec 22 '18 at 15:29









      Claudio DelfinoClaudio Delfino

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          Yes to the first question - this is a theorem of Caratheodory.



          And this implies a yes to the second question: If $f_j:overline{Bbb D}to overline D_j$ for $j=1,2$ are as above then $f_2circ f_1^{-1}:overline D_1tooverline D_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I can' t find this theorem in any book
            $endgroup$
            – Claudio Delfino
            Dec 22 '18 at 21:56










          • $begingroup$
            @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Dec 23 '18 at 14:37














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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

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          3












          $begingroup$

          Yes to the first question - this is a theorem of Caratheodory.



          And this implies a yes to the second question: If $f_j:overline{Bbb D}to overline D_j$ for $j=1,2$ are as above then $f_2circ f_1^{-1}:overline D_1tooverline D_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I can' t find this theorem in any book
            $endgroup$
            – Claudio Delfino
            Dec 22 '18 at 21:56










          • $begingroup$
            @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Dec 23 '18 at 14:37


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Yes to the first question - this is a theorem of Caratheodory.



          And this implies a yes to the second question: If $f_j:overline{Bbb D}to overline D_j$ for $j=1,2$ are as above then $f_2circ f_1^{-1}:overline D_1tooverline D_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I can' t find this theorem in any book
            $endgroup$
            – Claudio Delfino
            Dec 22 '18 at 21:56










          • $begingroup$
            @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Dec 23 '18 at 14:37
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Yes to the first question - this is a theorem of Caratheodory.



          And this implies a yes to the second question: If $f_j:overline{Bbb D}to overline D_j$ for $j=1,2$ are as above then $f_2circ f_1^{-1}:overline D_1tooverline D_2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Yes to the first question - this is a theorem of Caratheodory.



          And this implies a yes to the second question: If $f_j:overline{Bbb D}to overline D_j$ for $j=1,2$ are as above then $f_2circ f_1^{-1}:overline D_1tooverline D_2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 22 '18 at 18:55

























          answered Dec 22 '18 at 18:49









          David C. UllrichDavid C. Ullrich

          61.8k44095




          61.8k44095












          • $begingroup$
            I can' t find this theorem in any book
            $endgroup$
            – Claudio Delfino
            Dec 22 '18 at 21:56










          • $begingroup$
            @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Dec 23 '18 at 14:37




















          • $begingroup$
            I can' t find this theorem in any book
            $endgroup$
            – Claudio Delfino
            Dec 22 '18 at 21:56










          • $begingroup$
            @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Dec 23 '18 at 14:37


















          $begingroup$
          I can' t find this theorem in any book
          $endgroup$
          – Claudio Delfino
          Dec 22 '18 at 21:56




          $begingroup$
          I can' t find this theorem in any book
          $endgroup$
          – Claudio Delfino
          Dec 22 '18 at 21:56












          $begingroup$
          @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          Dec 23 '18 at 14:37






          $begingroup$
          @ClaudioDelfino There's what appears to be a fairly complete proof on the Wikipedia page. A weaker version of the result is in Rudin Real and Complex Analysis, Theorem 14.18; in the comments in section 14.20 he essentially states that the version above is true, no proof.
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          Dec 23 '18 at 14:37




















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