Proving that any given element $hk$ appears $|H cap K|$ times as a product in the list of $HK$












5












$begingroup$


I have been trying to prove that if $H, K$ are finite subgroups of $G$ then $|HK|=dfrac{|H| |K|}{|H cap K|}$. I saw the proofs in Herstein and Gallian textbook and they are essentially the same. However, it confuses me. The claim is that any given element $hk$ appears $|H cap K|$ times as a product in the list of $HK$ and what follows is my attempt of the proving the same but in a little different way and I wonder if it is correct.





We define the set $mathcal{R}(hk)={ (h',k') in Htimes K , | , hk=h'k' }$. Now, we define the map $fcolon Hcap K to mathcal{R}(hk)$ by $f(x)=(hx, x^{-1}k)$. Clearly, $f$ is well defined and we will show that $f$ is bijective.



Let $x,y in Hcap K$ and suppose that $f(x)=f(y)$. Then $(hx, x^{-1}k)=(hy, y^{-1}k)$ and hence $x=y$.



Let $(h' , k') in mathcal{R}(hk)$. Then $hk=h'k'$ and let $x = h^{-1} h' = kk'^{-1}$. Clearly, $xin H cap K$ and we have that $h'=hx$ and $k'=x^{-1}k$. Thus, $f(x)=(h',k')$. This shows $f$ is surjective.



Hence, we have that $|mathcal{R}(hk)|=|H cap K|$. This proves our claim.





I wonder if this is okay. Are Herstein and Gallian doing the same thing?



Here's the proof from Herstein:
enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 19 '18 at 18:17








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zvi i have updated the question
    $endgroup$
    – user561733
    Dec 19 '18 at 19:00






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 20 '18 at 15:53
















5












$begingroup$


I have been trying to prove that if $H, K$ are finite subgroups of $G$ then $|HK|=dfrac{|H| |K|}{|H cap K|}$. I saw the proofs in Herstein and Gallian textbook and they are essentially the same. However, it confuses me. The claim is that any given element $hk$ appears $|H cap K|$ times as a product in the list of $HK$ and what follows is my attempt of the proving the same but in a little different way and I wonder if it is correct.





We define the set $mathcal{R}(hk)={ (h',k') in Htimes K , | , hk=h'k' }$. Now, we define the map $fcolon Hcap K to mathcal{R}(hk)$ by $f(x)=(hx, x^{-1}k)$. Clearly, $f$ is well defined and we will show that $f$ is bijective.



Let $x,y in Hcap K$ and suppose that $f(x)=f(y)$. Then $(hx, x^{-1}k)=(hy, y^{-1}k)$ and hence $x=y$.



Let $(h' , k') in mathcal{R}(hk)$. Then $hk=h'k'$ and let $x = h^{-1} h' = kk'^{-1}$. Clearly, $xin H cap K$ and we have that $h'=hx$ and $k'=x^{-1}k$. Thus, $f(x)=(h',k')$. This shows $f$ is surjective.



Hence, we have that $|mathcal{R}(hk)|=|H cap K|$. This proves our claim.





I wonder if this is okay. Are Herstein and Gallian doing the same thing?



Here's the proof from Herstein:
enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 19 '18 at 18:17








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zvi i have updated the question
    $endgroup$
    – user561733
    Dec 19 '18 at 19:00






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 20 '18 at 15:53














5












5








5


2



$begingroup$


I have been trying to prove that if $H, K$ are finite subgroups of $G$ then $|HK|=dfrac{|H| |K|}{|H cap K|}$. I saw the proofs in Herstein and Gallian textbook and they are essentially the same. However, it confuses me. The claim is that any given element $hk$ appears $|H cap K|$ times as a product in the list of $HK$ and what follows is my attempt of the proving the same but in a little different way and I wonder if it is correct.





We define the set $mathcal{R}(hk)={ (h',k') in Htimes K , | , hk=h'k' }$. Now, we define the map $fcolon Hcap K to mathcal{R}(hk)$ by $f(x)=(hx, x^{-1}k)$. Clearly, $f$ is well defined and we will show that $f$ is bijective.



Let $x,y in Hcap K$ and suppose that $f(x)=f(y)$. Then $(hx, x^{-1}k)=(hy, y^{-1}k)$ and hence $x=y$.



Let $(h' , k') in mathcal{R}(hk)$. Then $hk=h'k'$ and let $x = h^{-1} h' = kk'^{-1}$. Clearly, $xin H cap K$ and we have that $h'=hx$ and $k'=x^{-1}k$. Thus, $f(x)=(h',k')$. This shows $f$ is surjective.



Hence, we have that $|mathcal{R}(hk)|=|H cap K|$. This proves our claim.





I wonder if this is okay. Are Herstein and Gallian doing the same thing?



Here's the proof from Herstein:
enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have been trying to prove that if $H, K$ are finite subgroups of $G$ then $|HK|=dfrac{|H| |K|}{|H cap K|}$. I saw the proofs in Herstein and Gallian textbook and they are essentially the same. However, it confuses me. The claim is that any given element $hk$ appears $|H cap K|$ times as a product in the list of $HK$ and what follows is my attempt of the proving the same but in a little different way and I wonder if it is correct.





We define the set $mathcal{R}(hk)={ (h',k') in Htimes K , | , hk=h'k' }$. Now, we define the map $fcolon Hcap K to mathcal{R}(hk)$ by $f(x)=(hx, x^{-1}k)$. Clearly, $f$ is well defined and we will show that $f$ is bijective.



Let $x,y in Hcap K$ and suppose that $f(x)=f(y)$. Then $(hx, x^{-1}k)=(hy, y^{-1}k)$ and hence $x=y$.



Let $(h' , k') in mathcal{R}(hk)$. Then $hk=h'k'$ and let $x = h^{-1} h' = kk'^{-1}$. Clearly, $xin H cap K$ and we have that $h'=hx$ and $k'=x^{-1}k$. Thus, $f(x)=(h',k')$. This shows $f$ is surjective.



Hence, we have that $|mathcal{R}(hk)|=|H cap K|$. This proves our claim.





I wonder if this is okay. Are Herstein and Gallian doing the same thing?



Here's the proof from Herstein:
enter image description here







group-theory proof-verification proof-explanation alternative-proof






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 21 '18 at 16:54









Shaun

10.1k113685




10.1k113685










asked Dec 19 '18 at 12:09









user561733user561733

334




334








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 19 '18 at 18:17








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zvi i have updated the question
    $endgroup$
    – user561733
    Dec 19 '18 at 19:00






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 20 '18 at 15:53














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 19 '18 at 18:17








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @Zvi i have updated the question
    $endgroup$
    – user561733
    Dec 19 '18 at 19:00






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
    $endgroup$
    – user593746
    Dec 20 '18 at 15:53








3




3




$begingroup$
We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
$endgroup$
– user593746
Dec 19 '18 at 18:17






$begingroup$
We cannot compare your proof with Herstein and Gallian's version, unless you post their proof here. Not everybody has the book. But from where I stand, your proof looks ok.
$endgroup$
– user593746
Dec 19 '18 at 18:17






1




1




$begingroup$
@Zvi i have updated the question
$endgroup$
– user561733
Dec 19 '18 at 19:00




$begingroup$
@Zvi i have updated the question
$endgroup$
– user561733
Dec 19 '18 at 19:00




3




3




$begingroup$
Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
$endgroup$
– user593746
Dec 20 '18 at 15:53




$begingroup$
Yes, your proof and the textbook's proof are doing the same thing, phrased differently.
$endgroup$
– user593746
Dec 20 '18 at 15:53










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