Motivational example for introducing singular distributions fom Rosenthal












1












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I am studying Rosenthal´s book, and I am stuck on one example, where author is showing why it is neccesary to consider distributions diffrent from absolutely continuous or discrete.



Well, what I don´t understand is the fact, that $P(Y in S)=1$ (by law of large numbers, I dont see how the average of partial sums converges to 2/3) and also why the measure of introduced set is $lambda = 0.$



Here is the screen of the motivational example.



a



Thanks in advance for any help.










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I am studying Rosenthal´s book, and I am stuck on one example, where author is showing why it is neccesary to consider distributions diffrent from absolutely continuous or discrete.



    Well, what I don´t understand is the fact, that $P(Y in S)=1$ (by law of large numbers, I dont see how the average of partial sums converges to 2/3) and also why the measure of introduced set is $lambda = 0.$



    Here is the screen of the motivational example.



    a



    Thanks in advance for any help.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am studying Rosenthal´s book, and I am stuck on one example, where author is showing why it is neccesary to consider distributions diffrent from absolutely continuous or discrete.



      Well, what I don´t understand is the fact, that $P(Y in S)=1$ (by law of large numbers, I dont see how the average of partial sums converges to 2/3) and also why the measure of introduced set is $lambda = 0.$



      Here is the screen of the motivational example.



      a



      Thanks in advance for any help.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am studying Rosenthal´s book, and I am stuck on one example, where author is showing why it is neccesary to consider distributions diffrent from absolutely continuous or discrete.



      Well, what I don´t understand is the fact, that $P(Y in S)=1$ (by law of large numbers, I dont see how the average of partial sums converges to 2/3) and also why the measure of introduced set is $lambda = 0.$



      Here is the screen of the motivational example.



      a



      Thanks in advance for any help.







      probability-theory measure-theory random-variables lebesgue-measure






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Dec 14 '18 at 15:44









      stanlystanly

      699




      699






















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Since the $Z_n$ are i.i.d, by the strong-law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{d_1(Y)+dotsb d_n(Y)}{n}=frac{Z_1+dotsb+Z_n}{n}to EZ_1=P(Z_1=1)=frac{2}{3}
          $$

          almost surely as $nto infty$. Hence $P(Yin S)=1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
            $endgroup$
            – stanly
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:01












          • $begingroup$
            No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:32













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          1 Answer
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          active

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Since the $Z_n$ are i.i.d, by the strong-law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{d_1(Y)+dotsb d_n(Y)}{n}=frac{Z_1+dotsb+Z_n}{n}to EZ_1=P(Z_1=1)=frac{2}{3}
          $$

          almost surely as $nto infty$. Hence $P(Yin S)=1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
            $endgroup$
            – stanly
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:01












          • $begingroup$
            No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:32


















          0












          $begingroup$

          Since the $Z_n$ are i.i.d, by the strong-law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{d_1(Y)+dotsb d_n(Y)}{n}=frac{Z_1+dotsb+Z_n}{n}to EZ_1=P(Z_1=1)=frac{2}{3}
          $$

          almost surely as $nto infty$. Hence $P(Yin S)=1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
            $endgroup$
            – stanly
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:01












          • $begingroup$
            No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:32
















          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Since the $Z_n$ are i.i.d, by the strong-law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{d_1(Y)+dotsb d_n(Y)}{n}=frac{Z_1+dotsb+Z_n}{n}to EZ_1=P(Z_1=1)=frac{2}{3}
          $$

          almost surely as $nto infty$. Hence $P(Yin S)=1.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Since the $Z_n$ are i.i.d, by the strong-law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{d_1(Y)+dotsb d_n(Y)}{n}=frac{Z_1+dotsb+Z_n}{n}to EZ_1=P(Z_1=1)=frac{2}{3}
          $$

          almost surely as $nto infty$. Hence $P(Yin S)=1.$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 14 '18 at 16:17

























          answered Dec 14 '18 at 15:52









          Foobaz JohnFoobaz John

          22.4k41452




          22.4k41452












          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
            $endgroup$
            – stanly
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:01












          • $begingroup$
            No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:32




















          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
            $endgroup$
            – stanly
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:01












          • $begingroup$
            No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
            $endgroup$
            – Robert Israel
            Dec 14 '18 at 16:32


















          $begingroup$
          Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
          $endgroup$
          – stanly
          Dec 14 '18 at 16:01






          $begingroup$
          Oh, I see. I didn't notice, that $d_{i}(Y)$ is actually $Z_{i}.$ But, I would have second question: why is the mesure of $S$ equal to $0.$ What´s the reason, that it contains only countably many numbers?
          $endgroup$
          – stanly
          Dec 14 '18 at 16:01














          $begingroup$
          No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 14 '18 at 16:32






          $begingroup$
          No, it's uncountable. But almost all members of $[0,1]$ have that limit $= 1/2$ rather than $2/3$, again by the strong law of large numbers.
          $endgroup$
          – Robert Israel
          Dec 14 '18 at 16:32




















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