Compactness of set of indicator functions
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Let $chi_A(x)$ denote an indicator function on $Asubset [0,1]$. Consider the set
$$K={chi_A(x): text{ A is Lebesgue measurable in }[0,1]}.$$
Is this set compact in $L^infty(0,1)$ with respect to weak-* topology? How about weak topology on $L^infty(0,1)$?
Using Banach-Alaoglu, the set $K$ is bounded and closed in $L^infty(0,1)$ so it is compact with respect to weak-* topology. It is closed, because if $chi_{A_1}$ converges to $f$ in $L^infty(0,1)$, then $f$ has to be an indicator function.
fa.functional-analysis real-analysis measure-theory convex-analysis compactness
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $chi_A(x)$ denote an indicator function on $Asubset [0,1]$. Consider the set
$$K={chi_A(x): text{ A is Lebesgue measurable in }[0,1]}.$$
Is this set compact in $L^infty(0,1)$ with respect to weak-* topology? How about weak topology on $L^infty(0,1)$?
Using Banach-Alaoglu, the set $K$ is bounded and closed in $L^infty(0,1)$ so it is compact with respect to weak-* topology. It is closed, because if $chi_{A_1}$ converges to $f$ in $L^infty(0,1)$, then $f$ has to be an indicator function.
fa.functional-analysis real-analysis measure-theory convex-analysis compactness
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $chi_A(x)$ denote an indicator function on $Asubset [0,1]$. Consider the set
$$K={chi_A(x): text{ A is Lebesgue measurable in }[0,1]}.$$
Is this set compact in $L^infty(0,1)$ with respect to weak-* topology? How about weak topology on $L^infty(0,1)$?
Using Banach-Alaoglu, the set $K$ is bounded and closed in $L^infty(0,1)$ so it is compact with respect to weak-* topology. It is closed, because if $chi_{A_1}$ converges to $f$ in $L^infty(0,1)$, then $f$ has to be an indicator function.
fa.functional-analysis real-analysis measure-theory convex-analysis compactness
$endgroup$
Let $chi_A(x)$ denote an indicator function on $Asubset [0,1]$. Consider the set
$$K={chi_A(x): text{ A is Lebesgue measurable in }[0,1]}.$$
Is this set compact in $L^infty(0,1)$ with respect to weak-* topology? How about weak topology on $L^infty(0,1)$?
Using Banach-Alaoglu, the set $K$ is bounded and closed in $L^infty(0,1)$ so it is compact with respect to weak-* topology. It is closed, because if $chi_{A_1}$ converges to $f$ in $L^infty(0,1)$, then $f$ has to be an indicator function.
fa.functional-analysis real-analysis measure-theory convex-analysis compactness
fa.functional-analysis real-analysis measure-theory convex-analysis compactness
asked yesterday
Sara WinsletSara Winslet
1438
1438
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
This set is not closed in the weak* topology. Indeed, for each $n$ consider the set $A_n=: [0, frac{1}{2n})cup [frac{2}{2n}, frac{3}{2n}] cupdotscup [frac{2n-2}{2n}, frac{2n-1}{2n})$, i.e. the sum of intervals that covers half of the interval. I claim that the sequence $chi_{A_n}$ converges to the function $frac{1}{2}$ in the weak* topology. Indeed, since the sequence is uniformly bounded, it suffices to check the convergence on a dense subset of $L^1$; we will take the continuous functions. Continuous functions on $[0,1]$ are uniformly continuous, so if we fix a function $f$, then for sufficiently big $n$ it will be almost constant on every interval of the form $[frac{k}{n}, frac{k+1}{n})$, so the integral on $[frac{2k}{2n}, frac{2k+1}{2n})$ will be almost equal to the integral on $[frac{2k+1}{2n}, frac{2k+2}{2n})$, up to $frac{varepsilon}{n}$, where $frac{1}{n}$ is coming from the length of the interval. It follows that the integral on $A_n$ is, up to $varepsilon$, equal to $frac{1}{2} int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$.
On the other hand, this sequence does not have a convergent subnet in the weak topology. Indeed, if it did, it would have to converge to $frac{1}{2}$. Recall that the weak closure of a convex set is equal to its norm closure. It means that if I take the convex hull of the functions $chi_{A_n}$, then I can find a sequence of elements converging uniformly to $frac{1}{2}$. Note that $chi_{A_n}$ vanishes on the interval $[frac{2n-1}{2n}, 1]$, so any element of the convex hull vanishes on an interval containing $1$. It follows that the distance of any element in the convex hull to $frac{1}{2}$ is at least $frac{1}{2}$, so there can be no convergence.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
This set is not closed in the weak* topology. Indeed, for each $n$ consider the set $A_n=: [0, frac{1}{2n})cup [frac{2}{2n}, frac{3}{2n}] cupdotscup [frac{2n-2}{2n}, frac{2n-1}{2n})$, i.e. the sum of intervals that covers half of the interval. I claim that the sequence $chi_{A_n}$ converges to the function $frac{1}{2}$ in the weak* topology. Indeed, since the sequence is uniformly bounded, it suffices to check the convergence on a dense subset of $L^1$; we will take the continuous functions. Continuous functions on $[0,1]$ are uniformly continuous, so if we fix a function $f$, then for sufficiently big $n$ it will be almost constant on every interval of the form $[frac{k}{n}, frac{k+1}{n})$, so the integral on $[frac{2k}{2n}, frac{2k+1}{2n})$ will be almost equal to the integral on $[frac{2k+1}{2n}, frac{2k+2}{2n})$, up to $frac{varepsilon}{n}$, where $frac{1}{n}$ is coming from the length of the interval. It follows that the integral on $A_n$ is, up to $varepsilon$, equal to $frac{1}{2} int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$.
On the other hand, this sequence does not have a convergent subnet in the weak topology. Indeed, if it did, it would have to converge to $frac{1}{2}$. Recall that the weak closure of a convex set is equal to its norm closure. It means that if I take the convex hull of the functions $chi_{A_n}$, then I can find a sequence of elements converging uniformly to $frac{1}{2}$. Note that $chi_{A_n}$ vanishes on the interval $[frac{2n-1}{2n}, 1]$, so any element of the convex hull vanishes on an interval containing $1$. It follows that the distance of any element in the convex hull to $frac{1}{2}$ is at least $frac{1}{2}$, so there can be no convergence.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This set is not closed in the weak* topology. Indeed, for each $n$ consider the set $A_n=: [0, frac{1}{2n})cup [frac{2}{2n}, frac{3}{2n}] cupdotscup [frac{2n-2}{2n}, frac{2n-1}{2n})$, i.e. the sum of intervals that covers half of the interval. I claim that the sequence $chi_{A_n}$ converges to the function $frac{1}{2}$ in the weak* topology. Indeed, since the sequence is uniformly bounded, it suffices to check the convergence on a dense subset of $L^1$; we will take the continuous functions. Continuous functions on $[0,1]$ are uniformly continuous, so if we fix a function $f$, then for sufficiently big $n$ it will be almost constant on every interval of the form $[frac{k}{n}, frac{k+1}{n})$, so the integral on $[frac{2k}{2n}, frac{2k+1}{2n})$ will be almost equal to the integral on $[frac{2k+1}{2n}, frac{2k+2}{2n})$, up to $frac{varepsilon}{n}$, where $frac{1}{n}$ is coming from the length of the interval. It follows that the integral on $A_n$ is, up to $varepsilon$, equal to $frac{1}{2} int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$.
On the other hand, this sequence does not have a convergent subnet in the weak topology. Indeed, if it did, it would have to converge to $frac{1}{2}$. Recall that the weak closure of a convex set is equal to its norm closure. It means that if I take the convex hull of the functions $chi_{A_n}$, then I can find a sequence of elements converging uniformly to $frac{1}{2}$. Note that $chi_{A_n}$ vanishes on the interval $[frac{2n-1}{2n}, 1]$, so any element of the convex hull vanishes on an interval containing $1$. It follows that the distance of any element in the convex hull to $frac{1}{2}$ is at least $frac{1}{2}$, so there can be no convergence.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This set is not closed in the weak* topology. Indeed, for each $n$ consider the set $A_n=: [0, frac{1}{2n})cup [frac{2}{2n}, frac{3}{2n}] cupdotscup [frac{2n-2}{2n}, frac{2n-1}{2n})$, i.e. the sum of intervals that covers half of the interval. I claim that the sequence $chi_{A_n}$ converges to the function $frac{1}{2}$ in the weak* topology. Indeed, since the sequence is uniformly bounded, it suffices to check the convergence on a dense subset of $L^1$; we will take the continuous functions. Continuous functions on $[0,1]$ are uniformly continuous, so if we fix a function $f$, then for sufficiently big $n$ it will be almost constant on every interval of the form $[frac{k}{n}, frac{k+1}{n})$, so the integral on $[frac{2k}{2n}, frac{2k+1}{2n})$ will be almost equal to the integral on $[frac{2k+1}{2n}, frac{2k+2}{2n})$, up to $frac{varepsilon}{n}$, where $frac{1}{n}$ is coming from the length of the interval. It follows that the integral on $A_n$ is, up to $varepsilon$, equal to $frac{1}{2} int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$.
On the other hand, this sequence does not have a convergent subnet in the weak topology. Indeed, if it did, it would have to converge to $frac{1}{2}$. Recall that the weak closure of a convex set is equal to its norm closure. It means that if I take the convex hull of the functions $chi_{A_n}$, then I can find a sequence of elements converging uniformly to $frac{1}{2}$. Note that $chi_{A_n}$ vanishes on the interval $[frac{2n-1}{2n}, 1]$, so any element of the convex hull vanishes on an interval containing $1$. It follows that the distance of any element in the convex hull to $frac{1}{2}$ is at least $frac{1}{2}$, so there can be no convergence.
$endgroup$
This set is not closed in the weak* topology. Indeed, for each $n$ consider the set $A_n=: [0, frac{1}{2n})cup [frac{2}{2n}, frac{3}{2n}] cupdotscup [frac{2n-2}{2n}, frac{2n-1}{2n})$, i.e. the sum of intervals that covers half of the interval. I claim that the sequence $chi_{A_n}$ converges to the function $frac{1}{2}$ in the weak* topology. Indeed, since the sequence is uniformly bounded, it suffices to check the convergence on a dense subset of $L^1$; we will take the continuous functions. Continuous functions on $[0,1]$ are uniformly continuous, so if we fix a function $f$, then for sufficiently big $n$ it will be almost constant on every interval of the form $[frac{k}{n}, frac{k+1}{n})$, so the integral on $[frac{2k}{2n}, frac{2k+1}{2n})$ will be almost equal to the integral on $[frac{2k+1}{2n}, frac{2k+2}{2n})$, up to $frac{varepsilon}{n}$, where $frac{1}{n}$ is coming from the length of the interval. It follows that the integral on $A_n$ is, up to $varepsilon$, equal to $frac{1}{2} int_{0}^{1} f(x) dx$.
On the other hand, this sequence does not have a convergent subnet in the weak topology. Indeed, if it did, it would have to converge to $frac{1}{2}$. Recall that the weak closure of a convex set is equal to its norm closure. It means that if I take the convex hull of the functions $chi_{A_n}$, then I can find a sequence of elements converging uniformly to $frac{1}{2}$. Note that $chi_{A_n}$ vanishes on the interval $[frac{2n-1}{2n}, 1]$, so any element of the convex hull vanishes on an interval containing $1$. It follows that the distance of any element in the convex hull to $frac{1}{2}$ is at least $frac{1}{2}$, so there can be no convergence.
answered yesterday
Mateusz WasilewskiMateusz Wasilewski
3,1551023
3,1551023
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
$begingroup$
In the first sentence, do you mean to say that the set is not closed in the weak (and not weak-*) topology?
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
yesterday
1
1
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
@WillieWong No, I really wanted to say weak*, to correct the erroneous claim from the OP that this set is compact in the weak*-topology. The second part of the answer was devoted to the weak topology; it was not really necessary, but I thought that an explicit counterexample in this setting would be illuminating. Maybe I will edit the answer later to make it clearer.
$endgroup$
– Mateusz Wasilewski
yesterday
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
$begingroup$
After re-reading your answer four times, I finally figure out what I misunderstood: I kept thinking of the constant function 1/2 as being just like a characteristic function, but of course it is not in the set K since the OP is not allowing changing the coefficient.
$endgroup$
– Willie Wong
7 hours ago
add a comment |
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