Existence of a subsequence converging to limsup
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence of real numbers, and define $$beta_n = sup { a_k : k geq n }. $$ This sequence converges to a limit,
$$lim_{n to infty} beta_n = limsup a_n.$$
I'm interested in proving the existence of a subsequence of $(a_n)$ that converges to $limsup a_n.$ I've read over the other posts concerning this and gave a satisfactory proof similar to these arguments, but I'm wondering if the following argument could be used as well. Note that in my study of analysis I've already proven the Bolzano-Weirstass theorem in $mathbb{R}$. Here goes.
If $beta_n$ is a bounded real sequence, Bolzano-Weierstrass implies that it has a convergent subsequence $(beta_{n_j})$. Since $lim beta_n$ exists and is equal to $limsup a_n,$ then $(beta_{n_j})$ converges to $limsup a_n.$
I'm not certain if this argument works because I want a subsequence of $(a_n).$ Is there a way to argue that $(beta_{n_j})$ is a subsequence of $(a_n)$?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limsup-and-liminf
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence of real numbers, and define $$beta_n = sup { a_k : k geq n }. $$ This sequence converges to a limit,
$$lim_{n to infty} beta_n = limsup a_n.$$
I'm interested in proving the existence of a subsequence of $(a_n)$ that converges to $limsup a_n.$ I've read over the other posts concerning this and gave a satisfactory proof similar to these arguments, but I'm wondering if the following argument could be used as well. Note that in my study of analysis I've already proven the Bolzano-Weirstass theorem in $mathbb{R}$. Here goes.
If $beta_n$ is a bounded real sequence, Bolzano-Weierstrass implies that it has a convergent subsequence $(beta_{n_j})$. Since $lim beta_n$ exists and is equal to $limsup a_n,$ then $(beta_{n_j})$ converges to $limsup a_n.$
I'm not certain if this argument works because I want a subsequence of $(a_n).$ Is there a way to argue that $(beta_{n_j})$ is a subsequence of $(a_n)$?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limsup-and-liminf
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence of real numbers, and define $$beta_n = sup { a_k : k geq n }. $$ This sequence converges to a limit,
$$lim_{n to infty} beta_n = limsup a_n.$$
I'm interested in proving the existence of a subsequence of $(a_n)$ that converges to $limsup a_n.$ I've read over the other posts concerning this and gave a satisfactory proof similar to these arguments, but I'm wondering if the following argument could be used as well. Note that in my study of analysis I've already proven the Bolzano-Weirstass theorem in $mathbb{R}$. Here goes.
If $beta_n$ is a bounded real sequence, Bolzano-Weierstrass implies that it has a convergent subsequence $(beta_{n_j})$. Since $lim beta_n$ exists and is equal to $limsup a_n,$ then $(beta_{n_j})$ converges to $limsup a_n.$
I'm not certain if this argument works because I want a subsequence of $(a_n).$ Is there a way to argue that $(beta_{n_j})$ is a subsequence of $(a_n)$?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limsup-and-liminf
$endgroup$
Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence of real numbers, and define $$beta_n = sup { a_k : k geq n }. $$ This sequence converges to a limit,
$$lim_{n to infty} beta_n = limsup a_n.$$
I'm interested in proving the existence of a subsequence of $(a_n)$ that converges to $limsup a_n.$ I've read over the other posts concerning this and gave a satisfactory proof similar to these arguments, but I'm wondering if the following argument could be used as well. Note that in my study of analysis I've already proven the Bolzano-Weirstass theorem in $mathbb{R}$. Here goes.
If $beta_n$ is a bounded real sequence, Bolzano-Weierstrass implies that it has a convergent subsequence $(beta_{n_j})$. Since $lim beta_n$ exists and is equal to $limsup a_n,$ then $(beta_{n_j})$ converges to $limsup a_n.$
I'm not certain if this argument works because I want a subsequence of $(a_n).$ Is there a way to argue that $(beta_{n_j})$ is a subsequence of $(a_n)$?
real-analysis sequences-and-series limsup-and-liminf
real-analysis sequences-and-series limsup-and-liminf
asked Dec 16 '18 at 21:42
dovedove
83
83
3
$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09
3
3
$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
No, it doesn't work because $beta_n$ needs not be an element of $(a_k)$.
We need a slight modification: for $n$, by the definition of supremum, there's an element $a_{k_n}>beta_n-frac1n$.
Then we get $Lleftarrow beta_n-frac1n<a_{k_n}lebeta_n to L$, where $L=limbeta_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In context:
$b_n= sup (a_k| k ge n)$
$A:= lim_{n rightarrow infty} b_n=lim sup a_n.$
Show that $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.
1)Let $epsilon >0$ be given.
There is a $N$ such that for $n ge N$
$|b_n -A| lt epsilon/2.$
2) By definition of $b_n = sup (a_k|k ge n)$ there is a
$a_{n_k}$ such that for $k ge k_0$
$|a_{n_k}-b_n| lt epsilon/2.$
For $n ge N$, and $k ge k_0$
3) $|a_{n_k}-A| le$
$ |a_{n_k}-b_n| +|b_n-A| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$, and $a_{n_k}$ converges to.$A$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
add a comment |
Your Answer
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2 Answers
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active
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
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$begingroup$
No, it doesn't work because $beta_n$ needs not be an element of $(a_k)$.
We need a slight modification: for $n$, by the definition of supremum, there's an element $a_{k_n}>beta_n-frac1n$.
Then we get $Lleftarrow beta_n-frac1n<a_{k_n}lebeta_n to L$, where $L=limbeta_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, it doesn't work because $beta_n$ needs not be an element of $(a_k)$.
We need a slight modification: for $n$, by the definition of supremum, there's an element $a_{k_n}>beta_n-frac1n$.
Then we get $Lleftarrow beta_n-frac1n<a_{k_n}lebeta_n to L$, where $L=limbeta_n$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, it doesn't work because $beta_n$ needs not be an element of $(a_k)$.
We need a slight modification: for $n$, by the definition of supremum, there's an element $a_{k_n}>beta_n-frac1n$.
Then we get $Lleftarrow beta_n-frac1n<a_{k_n}lebeta_n to L$, where $L=limbeta_n$.
$endgroup$
No, it doesn't work because $beta_n$ needs not be an element of $(a_k)$.
We need a slight modification: for $n$, by the definition of supremum, there's an element $a_{k_n}>beta_n-frac1n$.
Then we get $Lleftarrow beta_n-frac1n<a_{k_n}lebeta_n to L$, where $L=limbeta_n$.
answered Dec 16 '18 at 22:01
BerciBerci
61.4k23674
61.4k23674
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
$begingroup$
Great, thanks, I thought so! Appreciate the speedy response.
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 0:23
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In context:
$b_n= sup (a_k| k ge n)$
$A:= lim_{n rightarrow infty} b_n=lim sup a_n.$
Show that $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.
1)Let $epsilon >0$ be given.
There is a $N$ such that for $n ge N$
$|b_n -A| lt epsilon/2.$
2) By definition of $b_n = sup (a_k|k ge n)$ there is a
$a_{n_k}$ such that for $k ge k_0$
$|a_{n_k}-b_n| lt epsilon/2.$
For $n ge N$, and $k ge k_0$
3) $|a_{n_k}-A| le$
$ |a_{n_k}-b_n| +|b_n-A| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$, and $a_{n_k}$ converges to.$A$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In context:
$b_n= sup (a_k| k ge n)$
$A:= lim_{n rightarrow infty} b_n=lim sup a_n.$
Show that $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.
1)Let $epsilon >0$ be given.
There is a $N$ such that for $n ge N$
$|b_n -A| lt epsilon/2.$
2) By definition of $b_n = sup (a_k|k ge n)$ there is a
$a_{n_k}$ such that for $k ge k_0$
$|a_{n_k}-b_n| lt epsilon/2.$
For $n ge N$, and $k ge k_0$
3) $|a_{n_k}-A| le$
$ |a_{n_k}-b_n| +|b_n-A| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$, and $a_{n_k}$ converges to.$A$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
In context:
$b_n= sup (a_k| k ge n)$
$A:= lim_{n rightarrow infty} b_n=lim sup a_n.$
Show that $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.
1)Let $epsilon >0$ be given.
There is a $N$ such that for $n ge N$
$|b_n -A| lt epsilon/2.$
2) By definition of $b_n = sup (a_k|k ge n)$ there is a
$a_{n_k}$ such that for $k ge k_0$
$|a_{n_k}-b_n| lt epsilon/2.$
For $n ge N$, and $k ge k_0$
3) $|a_{n_k}-A| le$
$ |a_{n_k}-b_n| +|b_n-A| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$, and $a_{n_k}$ converges to.$A$.
$endgroup$
In context:
$b_n= sup (a_k| k ge n)$
$A:= lim_{n rightarrow infty} b_n=lim sup a_n.$
Show that $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$.
1)Let $epsilon >0$ be given.
There is a $N$ such that for $n ge N$
$|b_n -A| lt epsilon/2.$
2) By definition of $b_n = sup (a_k|k ge n)$ there is a
$a_{n_k}$ such that for $k ge k_0$
$|a_{n_k}-b_n| lt epsilon/2.$
For $n ge N$, and $k ge k_0$
3) $|a_{n_k}-A| le$
$ |a_{n_k}-b_n| +|b_n-A| lt epsilon$, i.e.
$A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$, and $a_{n_k}$ converges to.$A$.
answered Dec 17 '18 at 8:26
Peter SzilasPeter Szilas
11.5k2822
11.5k2822
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
Thank you! I haven't been formally introduced to the notion of limit points yet, but this makes things clear. I assume this follows from a proof that if $A$ is a limit point of $(a_n)$ then there is a subsequence of $(a_n)$ converging to $A$?
$endgroup$
– dove
Dec 17 '18 at 18:26
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
$begingroup$
dove.Welcome. Yes.Hopefully adds a bit of context.I myself am not very much at ease with limsup and liminf. Bounded a_n has limit points, a subsequence converges to every limit point.Shown above: limsup is a imit point A of (a_n), hence a subsequence converges to A.Greetings.
$endgroup$
– Peter Szilas
Dec 17 '18 at 19:22
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
No because $(beta _{n_j})$ is not a subsequence of $(a_n)$. Moreover, why taking a subsequence of $(beta _n)$ since it already converge ?
$endgroup$
– Surb
Dec 16 '18 at 21:47
$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/581128/…
$endgroup$
– parsiad
Dec 16 '18 at 22:09